West Bengal SET Geography (Paper-II) PYQs

PYQs for Practice

2025 Paper

WB SET 2025

Subject Code: 13 | Series: X | Maximum Marks: 200 | Time: 2 Hours

Instructions: 100 multiple-choice questions. All questions are compulsory. Each question carries 2 marks. No negative marking.

Questions 1–10: Geomorphology

1. Two cuestas converge northward and have dipslopes facing each other. This denotes

• 1. southward plunging anticline
• 2. southward plunging syncline
• 3. northward plunging anticline
• 4. northward plunging syncline

2. A large-scale sheet of rock, pushed over other rock mass along low angle fault plane and displaced from its original location is structurally known as

• 1. Imbricate thrusting
• 2. Rift valley
• 3. En-echelon faulting
• 4. Nappe

3. According to Wood’s slope evolution model, the retreat of the free face in the initial stage results in

• 1. the development of an upper waning slope
• 2. the development of an upper rectilinear slope
• 3. the development of a lower waxing slope
• 4. the development of summital concavity

4. Which of the following largely regulates the alternation of oxidation state from ferrous oxides to ferric oxides?

• 1. Ionic potential
• 2. Redox potential
• 3. Cation exchange capacity
• 4. Base exchange capacity

5. The correct arrangement of mass movement types in order of increasing dryness of materials is

• 1. Mudflow, Solifluction, Creep, Rockslide
• 2. Solifluction, Mudflow, Rockslide, Creep
• 3. Mudflow, Creep, Solifluction, Rockslide
• 4. Creep, Mudflow, Rockslide, Solifluction

6. Assertion (A): High concentration of suspended sediment increases transportational capacity of the stream. Reason (R): Viscosity increases by the high concentration of suspended sediment load which reduces turbulence and energy dissipation.

Select the correct option:

• 1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
• 2. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
• 3. 1. is correct but (R) is false
• 4. 1. is false but (R) is correct

7. Study the following diagram and identify the different types of geomorphic equilibria:

*(Diagram shows: line a above Equilibrium state 2; line b between Equilibrium state 1 and a Threshold; line c below the Threshold)

• 1. 1. Unstable equilibrium, b. Metastable equilibrium, c. Dynamic equilibrium
• 2. 1. Metastable equilibrium, b. Dynamic equilibrium, c. Unstable equilibrium
• 3. 1. Dynamic equilibrium, b. Unstable equilibrium, c. Metastable equilibrium
• 4. 1. Dynamic equilibrium, b. Metastable equilibrium, c. Unstable equilibrium

8. Assertion (A): Impoundment of a river decreases its downstream entrainment capacity. Reason (R): Water velocity drops in a reservoir.

Select the correct option:

• 1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
• 2. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
• 3. 1. is true but (R) is false
• 4. 1. is false but (R) is true

9. Match the following lists:

Geomorphic Features	Geomorphic Processes
(a) Estavelle	(i) Coastal
(b) Kettle hole	(ii) Periglacial
(c) Gloup	(iii) Glacial
(d) Sandar	(iv) Karstic
	(v) Glaciofluvial

Codes:

• 1. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(v)
• 2. (a)-(v), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
• 3. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
• 4. (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

10. Match the given erosional surfaces with their propounders:

List-I (Surface)	List-II (Propounder)
(a) Endrumpf	(i) E. J. Wayland
(b) Panplain	(ii) L.C. King
(c) Pediplain	(iii) W. Penck
(d) Etchplain	(iv) C.H. Crickmay

Codes:

• 1. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
• 2. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
• 3. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
• 4. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

Questions 11–20: Climatology & Atmosphere

11. Which of the following techniques of measuring atmospheric moisture is based on electrical resistance?

• 1. Psychrometer
• 2. Dew-point hygrometer
• 3. Lithium chloride based hygrometer
• 4. Hair hygrograph

12. Following are some of the greenhouse gases: (i) CH₄ (Methane), (ii) CO₂ (Carbon dioxide), (iii) CFC-11 (Chlorofluorocarbon-11), (iv) N₂O (Nitrous oxide)

Choose the appropriate order based on their Global Warming Potential (GWP):

• 1. (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)
• 2. (i), (iv), (ii), (iii)
• 3. (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
• 4. (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)

13. Go through the following characteristics and identify the appropriate atmospheric layer: (i) Effective lid on convection, (ii) Isothermal, (iii) Height varies latitudinally, (iv) Average temperature ranges from -70°C to -85°C, (v) Average pressure is 100 mb

• 1. Mesosphere
• 2. Stratosphere
• 3. Mesopause
• 4. Tropopause

14. Assertion (A): The speed of geostrophic thermal wind increases with height. Reason (R): Each isobaric surface slopes more steeply than the one below it.

Select the correct option:

• 1. 1. is false but (R) is true
• 2. 1. is true but (R) is false
• 3. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
• 4. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

15. Which of the following are considered to be the criticism of Thornthwaite Climate Classification? (i) Limited climatic variables — ignores prevailing wind, air pressure, airmass (ii) It uses indices, thereby cannot be replicated for other areas (iii) Overemphasis on water balance — may not capture climate variability (iv) Vegetation linkages — it inappropriately explains biogeographical pattern

• 1. 1. and (iii) only
• 2. (i), (ii) and (iii) only
• 3. 2. and (iii) only
• 4. (ii), (iii) and (iv) only

16. Match the following columns:

Atmospheric Condition/Stability	Condition
(a) Absolutely stable	(i) ELR < WALR
(b) Conditionally stable	(ii) ELR = DALR
(c) Absolutely unstable	(iii) WALR < ELR < DALR
(d) Neutral stability	(iv) ELR > DALR

Codes:

• 1. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
• 2. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
• 3. (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
• 4. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

17. Identify the false statement from the following:

• 1. Limestone sediments and fossil fuels are the major reservoirs of CO₂ in land
• 2. O₃ is mainly formed between 30–60 km above the ground by collision of O₂ and O
• 3. Dry adiabatic lapse rate is constant
• 4. Saturated adiabatic lapse rate is high under high temperature

18. Which among the following types of climate change causing agents are susceptible to anthropogenic alteration?

• 1. Non-radiative forcing agents
• 2. External radiative forcing agents
• 3. Internal radiative forcing agents
• 4. Astronomical forcing agents

19. Averaged over a year, approximately __________ W of solar energy reaches every m² of earth.

• 1. 278
• 2. 297
• 3. 306
• 4. 342

20. Dish-pan experiment relates to the formation of __________.

• 1. Polar Vortex
• 2. ENSO
• 3. Rossby Waves
• 4. Easterly Jet Streams

Questions 21–30: Oceanography

21. Elevation difference across the ocean floor fracture zones is not explained by the plate’s

• 1. Material differences
• 2. Temperature difference
• 3. Age difference
• 4. Density difference

22. The morphology of a slow-spreading mid-oceanic ridge axis is characterised by

• 1. axial graben with 1500–3000 m depth, faulted topography and intermittent shield volcanoes
• 2. axial graben with 50–100 m depth, thrust faults and discrete central volcanoes
• 3. axial graben with not more than 100–200 m depth, having en-echelon faults and moderately continuous central volcanoes
• 4. no axial valley, active thrust faults and continuous shield volcanoes

23. The Swatch of No Ground is a submarine canyon extending offshore from the mouth or delta of the

• 1. Amazon river
• 2. Congo river
• 3. Ganga river
• 4. Hudson river

24. Select the correct statement:

• 1. Pycnocline is a halocline; it can also be a thermocline
• 2. Pycnocline is a thermocline; it can also be a halocline
• 3. Pycnocline is a halocline; it can never be a thermocline
• 4. Pycnocline is a thermocline; it can never be a halocline

25. Assertion (A): Calcareous oozes are found in lower latitudes and up to a depth of 4500 m. Reason (R): Organisms with carbonate shells predominate in warm, shallow water and calcium carbonate dissolves very slowly below the depth of 4500 m.

Select the correct option:

• 1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
• 2. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
• 3. 1. is true but (R) is false
• 4. 1. is false but (R) is true

26. Match the following lists:

List-I (Breaker Types)	List-II (Beach Gradient)	List-III (Beach Grain Size)	List-IV (Level of Energy Dissipation)
(a) Spilling Breaker	(i) Steep	(1) Coarse	(I) Less
(b) Plunging Breaker	(ii) Moderate	(2) Moderate	(II) Moderate
(c) Surging Breaker	(iii) Gentle	(3) Fine	(III) High

• 1. (a)–(iii)–(2)–(III); (b)–(i)–(1)–(III); (c)–(iii)–(1)–(II)
• 2. (a)–(i)–(3)–(II); (b)–(ii)–(1)–(III); (c)–(i)–(1)–(II)
• 3. (a)–(iii)–(3)–(III); (b)–(ii)–(2)–(II); (c)–(i)–(1)–(I)
• 4. (a)–(ii)–(3)–(III); (b)–(i)–(2)–(III); (c)–(i)–(2)–(II)

27. Read the statements about rotating tide and select the correct option: (i) Tidal amplitude increases away from amphidromic point. (ii) Velocity of tidal wave is proportional to the depth of ocean.

• 1. Both (i) and (ii) are correct
• 2. Both (i) and (ii) are false
• 3. 1. is correct but (ii) is false
• 4. 1. is false but (ii) is correct

28. A wave approaching the coastline indicates transformation of wave parameters in which manner?

• 1. Wave height decreases, celerity increases, wave length decreases
• 2. Wave height increases, celerity decreases, wave length decreases
• 3. Wave height increases, celerity increases, wave length decreases
• 4. Wave height decreases, celerity decreases, wave length increases

29. According to Forchammer’s principle, potassium constitutes ________% of dissolved salt in seawater.

• 1. 0·8
• 2. 0·9
• 3. 1·0
• 4. 1·1

30. Which among the following processes is not used for desalination of ocean water?

• 1. Reverse osmosis
• 2. Osmosis
• 3. Electrolysis
• 4. Freeze separation

Questions 31–40: Biogeography & Environment

31. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct option:

List-I	List-II
(a) Photo autotroph organisms	(i) can adapt to the presence or absence of oxygen
(b) Chemo autotroph organisms	(ii) obtain their energy from photosynthesis
(c) Zymogenous organisms	(iii) obtain their energy from oxidation of compounds
(d) Facultative organisms	(iv) proliferate rapidly in the presence of an organic substrate

Codes:

• 1. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
• 2. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
• 3. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
• 4. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

32. In which one of the following biogeochemical cycles is the rate of turnover slowest with respect to residence time in lithosphere?

• 1. Carbon
• 2. Phosphorus
• 3. Nitrogen
• 4. Sulphur

33. Which of the following pollutants is not included in National Air Quality Index (AQI) in India but is considered to calculate National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) in India?

• 1. Lead
• 2. Ozone
• 3. Ammonia
• 4. Arsenic

34. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct option:

List-I	List-II
(a) London smog	(i) Forest fire
(b) Photochemical smog	(ii) Thermal power plant and industries
(c) Nitrogen dioxide	(iii) Volatile organic compound
(d) Formic acid	(iv) High concentration of SO₂

Codes:

• 1. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
• 2. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
• 3. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
• 4. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

35. Assertion (A): In a stable climate, forests generally sequester more carbon than grasslands. Reason (R): Forests store most of their carbon in above-ground woody biomass.

Select the correct option:

• 1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
• 2. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
• 3. 1. is false but (R) is true
• 4. Both (A) and (R) are false

36. Assertion (A): Satellite remote sensing is useful for land degradation monitoring. Reason (R): INSAT & GNSS satellites provide regular and precise location as well as data.

Select the correct option:

• 1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
• 2. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
• 3. 1. is false but (R) is true
• 4. Both (A) and (R) are false

37. Assertion (A): Urban Heat Island (UHI) refers to any area being significantly warmer than surrounding rural regions. Reason (R): Urban modelling for city planning is effective in countering UHI effect.

Select the correct option:

• 1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
• 2. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
• 3. 1. is false but (R) is true
• 4. Both (A) and (R) are false

38. Statement (i): Dam construction and submersion lead to loss of arable farmland and forest. Statement (ii): These losses are borne disproportionately by people living in the command areas.

Select the correct option:

• 1. Both (i) and (ii) are true and (i) will cause (ii)
• 2. Both (i) and (ii) are true but (i) will not cause (ii)
• 3. 1. is true but (ii) is false
• 4. 1. is false but (ii) is true

39. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct option:

List-I (Coastal Type/Zone)	List-II (CRZ Category)
(a) 22 km offshore from LTL	(i) I A
(b) Intertidal area	(ii) I B
(c) Turtle nesting grounds	(iii) III B
(d) Area with population density of <2161/km² (2011)	(iv) IV A
	(v) IV B

Codes:

• 1. (a)-(v), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
• 2. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
• 3. (a)-(v), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
• 4. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

40. Norcondam Island relates to which of the following?

• 1. Volcanic dome
• 2. Stratovolcano
• 3. Exposed Seamount
• 4. Hotspot

Questions 41–50: Population & Settlement Geography

41. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct option with regard to demographic transition:

List-I (Factor)	List-II (Outcome)
(a) Increased access to education and female employment	(i) Delays transition from stage-2 to stage-3
(b) Persistent reliance on subsistence agriculture	(ii) Facilitates demographic dividend
(c) Widespread improvement in healthcare/sanitation	(iii) Drives decline in death rate
(d) Increased urbanisation and growth of middle class	(iv) Contributes to lower birth rate

Codes:

• 1. (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
• 2. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
• 3. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
• 4. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

42. What does DALY stand for?

• 1. Daily Adjusted Life Year
• 2. Defined Age Life Year
• 3. Disability Adjusted Life Years
• 4. Death Adjusted Life Years

43. Assertion (A): Scandinavian countries have a regressive age-sex population structure. Reason (R): The population growth rate is negative in these countries.

Select the correct option:

• 1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
• 2. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
• 3. 1. is true but (R) is false
• 4. 1. is false but (R) is true

44. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct code:

List-I	List-II
(a) Short distance migration	(i) Lee’s theory
(b) Push-Pull factors	(ii) Ravenstein’s theory
(c) Household level decision-making to diversify income	(iii) Migration system theory
(d) Historical linkage, feedback loops and network dynamics	(iv) New economies of labour migration approach

Codes:

• 1. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
• 2. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
• 3. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
• 4. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

45. Read the following statements and choose the correct option: (i) Compact settlements occur in the alluvial plains of the tropical areas. (ii) Dispersed settlements are found in the tropical coastal plains. (iii) Star-like settlements grow in the confluence areas of the big rivers.

• 1. 1. and (iii) are correct
• 2. 2. is correct, but (iii) is incorrect
• 3. 1. is correct, but (ii) is incorrect
• 4. 1. and (iii) are incorrect

46. Which of the following are the suitable measures to address the problem of traffic congestion in an urban area? (i) Absence of parking space for private vehicles (ii) More use of public transport (iii) Improvement of signalling system (iv) Absolute restriction of entry of vehicles

Codes:

• 1. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
• 2. (i), (iii), (iv) only
• 3. (ii), (iii), (iv) only
• 4. (i), (ii), (iii) only

47. Consider the following statements and select the correct option: (i) Gordon Childe argued that merchants were the primary catalysts for urban revival in Europe. (ii) Henri Pirenne’s theory of urban development centres around production of agricultural surplus, particularly surplus food through advanced agriculture. (iii) Lewis Mumford viewed urban growth as an organic process rooted in human social needs. (iv) Gordon Childe saw the neolithic village as the foundation of urban life.

• 1. 1. and (iii) only
• 2. 3. and (iv) only
• 3. 3. only
• 4. 4. only

48. Assertion (A): The rank-size rule accurately predicts the population of every city in a country without any deviation. Reason (R): The rank-size rule is based on the observation that in some countries, the population of a city is approximately inversely proportional to its rank in the urban hierarchy.

Select the correct option:

• 1. Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
• 2. Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
• 3. 1. is correct, but (R) is false
• 4. 1. is false, but (R) is correct

49. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct option:

List-I	List-II
(a) W. J. Reilly	(i) Least Effort Principle
(b) G. K. Zipf	(ii) Spatial Interaction Model
(c) S. A. Stouffer	(iii) Law of Retail Gravitation
(d) T. Hägerstrand	(iv) Intervening Opportunities Model

Codes:

• 1. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
• 2. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
• 3. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
• 4. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

50. Who put forward the theory that the first towns originated from ‘cities of the dead’ and not from settlements?

• 1. Henri Pirenne
• 2. Gordon Childe
• 3. Lewis Mumford
• 4. John Friedman

Questions 51–60: Economic Geography & Regional Development

51. The following are some of the strategies to be adopted for managing the world energy crisis sustainably. Choose the best and most practical one.

• 1. Stabilization of prices of the energy resources
• 2. Promotion of sustainable production and consumption of energy
• 3. Diversification of energy sources investing more in renewable energy technologies
• 4. Promotion of international collaboration to address global energy crisis

52. Which one of the following denotes the meaning of agricultural productivity?

• 1. Total output of crops in an area
• 2. Gross production of crops in an area in a particular season
• 3. Crop output per unit of area
• 4. Total agricultural production of an area

53. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct option:

List-I (Industrial Regions)	List-II (Industrial Centres)
(a) Eastern Europe	(i) Great Lakes & Boston
(b) Western & Central Europe	(ii) Volga Basin & parts of Ukraine
(c) Eastern-North America	(iii) Pearl River Delta & Tokyo-Yokohama
(d) Eastern Asia	(iv) Ruhr & Paris Basins

Codes:

• 1. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
• 2. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
• 3. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
• 4. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

54. Which one of the following is a negative impact of globalization on the manufacturing sector in the less developed countries?

• 1. Foreign direct investment in establishing manufacturing plants has substantially increased
• 2. Multinational companies are establishing plants to take advantage of the local resources
• 3. Low wage to workers has led to labour exploitation
• 4. Access to global markets has enhanced quantum of exports

55. Which of the following statements is correct? (i) World Trade Organization was formed in 2005 to replace United Nations Conference on Trade and Development. (ii) World Trade Organization’s equal treatment rule ensures same trade benefits for all members. (iii) World Trade Organization’s rules apply only to developed countries. (iv) World Trade Organization’s dispute body imposes sanctions without negotiations.

• 1. 2. only
• 2. 2. and (iii) only
• 3. 3. and (iv) only
• 4. 4. only

56. Consider the following: (a) Three main principles of Edward Ullman’s spatial interaction are complementarity, transferability and intervening opportunities. (b) M. E. Hurst’s work on spatial interaction primarily focussed on the development of the gravity model. (c) In Ullman’s concept of complementarity, spatial interaction occurs only when there is a supply in one location and a demand in another. (d) Hurst’s work on spatial interaction emphasized the role of transportation infrastructure in shaping urban development patterns.

Which of the statement(s) is/are false?

• 1. (a), (c) and (d) only
• 2. 2. and (d) only
• 3. 3. only
• 4. 2. only

57. Assertion (A): According to Hirschman, investing in a leading sector can create a ‘trickle-down’ effect to less developed regions. Reason (R): The trickle-down effect occurs because surplus labour from under-developed areas migrate to the leading sector.

Select the correct option:

• 1. Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
• 2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
• 3. 1. is true, but (R) is false
• 4. 1. is false, but (R) is true

58. Boundary of functional regions are typically determined by

• 1. administrative convenience and divisions
• 2. government decree
• 3. extent of central activity
• 4. physical features like rivers and mountains

59. Assertion (A): Regional imbalances in India are primarily caused by uneven development due to historical, geographical and economical factors. Reason (R): Unequal investment in states by the central government.

Choose the correct option:

• 1. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
• 2. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
• 3. 1. is true, but (R) is false
• 4. 1. is false, but (R) is true

60. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of intra-regional cooperation?

• 1. Increased trade and investment opportunities
• 2. Enhanced political stability and security
• 3. Limited access to resources
• 4. Improved infrastructure and connectivity

Questions 61–70: Cultural & Political Geography

61. Given below are two statements. Choose the correct answer from the codes given below: (i) Acculturation refers to a process where distinct cultures retain their unique identities despite interaction. (ii) Cultural divergence is a process where one culture adopts traits of another while retaining some of its original characteristics.

• 1. Only (i) is correct
• 2. Only (ii) is correct
• 3. Both (i) and (ii) are correct
• 4. Neither (i) nor (ii) is correct

62. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I	List-II
(a) Culture	(i) Cultural traits that are functionally interrelated
(b) Cultural Complex	(ii) Area that is distinct from surrounding areas in specific characteristics
(c) Cultural Region	(iii) Specialized behavioural pattern, understanding and adaptation of a group
(d) Cultural Integration	(iv) Interlocking nature of the sociological, technological and ideological subsystem

Codes:

• 1. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
• 2. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
• 3. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
• 4. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

63. Assertion (A): Maladaptation in cultural ecology can lead to environmental degradation. Reason (R): Practices like overgrazing can cause desertification, harming both the environment and the society relying on it.

Choose the correct option:

• 1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
• 2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
• 3. 1. is true, but (R) is false
• 4. 1. is false, but (R) is true

64. Which among these is not a cultural complex related to agricultural activities?

• 1. Ploughing, puddling and tilling of wet soil
• 2. Practice of herbicide application and manual weeding
• 3. Preparation of rice pudding
• 4. Preparation of rice pudding for Pongal & Bhogi

65. Which organization is known for recognising and protecting World Heritage Sites?

• 1. International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)
• 2. International Council on Monuments and Sites (ICOMOS)
• 3. United Nations Educational Scientific and Cultural Organisation (UNESCO)
• 4. World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF)

66. Which of the following statement(s) is/are not true? (i) Scheduled tribes in India are largely concentrated in the hilly and forested tracts of India. (ii) Most of the tribal groups in North-East India speak Mon-Khmer language. (iii) Religious minorities in India have greater representation in the geographical periphery of the country. (iv) Distribution of scheduled tribes and scheduled castes in India is characterised by a spatial dichotomy.

Codes:

• 1. 2. and (iii) only
• 2. 2. only
• 3. 3. and (iv) only
• 4. 4. only

67. How does the concept of cumulative disadvantage relate to social exclusion?

• 1. It describes how advantages accumulate for the privileged groups over time
• 2. It refers to the compounding effects of multiple forms of exclusion across an individual’s life course
• 3. It explains equal distribution of resources among the marginalized
• 4. It highlights the role of social inclusion in reducing poverty

68. Assertion (A): Mackinder’s Heartland Theory ignores the role of technology in geopolitics. Reason (R): The theory was developed before air power and nuclear weapons existed.

Choose the correct option:

• 1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
• 2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
• 3. 1. is correct, but (R) is false
• 4. 1. is false, but (R) is correct

69. Which among the following states of India share international boundaries with three countries?

• 1. Rajasthan, West Bengal and Sikkim
• 2. Arunachal Pradesh, Tripura and West Bengal
• 3. Sikkim, West Bengal and Arunachal Pradesh
• 4. Sikkim, West Bengal and Bihar

70. Subsequent boundaries are those which follow

• 1. demarcation based on natural resources
• 2. demarcation based on settlement sites
• 3. demarcation based on pre-existing cultural difference
• 4. demarcation based on settlement and modification by human activity and cultural traits

Questions 71–80: Geographical Thought & Philosophy

71. Which of the following statements on the outcome of the Quantitative Revolution (QR) is correct?

• 1. QR was successful in making geography a scientific and applied discipline
• 2. Geography was misdirected and misinterpreted during the time of QR
• 3. Geography became more ideographic in approach after the QR
• 4. QR did not have any visible impact on geography in India

72. Match the names of the scholars in List-I with their fields of contribution in List-II:

List-I (Scholars)	List-II (Field of contribution)
(a) Friedrich Ratzel	(i) Locational analysis
(b) Richard Hartshorne	(ii) Anthropogeography
(c) Ellen C. Semple	(iii) Areal differentiation
(d) Peter Haggett	(iv) Environmental determinism

Codes:

• 1. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
• 2. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
• 3. (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
• 4. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

73. Positivism as a philosophical approach relies on

• 1. study of environmental ethics and conservation
• 2. positive values in geographical analysis
• 3. formal construction of theories capable of empirical verification
• 4. rejection of laws and generalization in geographical research

74. The hypothesis which is ‘provisionally accepted as a basis of further research’ is known as

• 1. Complex hypothesis
• 2. Working (Empirical) hypothesis
• 3. Statistical hypothesis
• 4. Null hypothesis

75. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct option:

List-I	List-II
(a) Affective ties between people and place	(i) Phenomenology
(b) No idea or belief is absolutely certain	(ii) Fallibilism
(c) Disorder, chaos and difference	(iii) Practical heterology
(d) Differential perception or impression of a geographical event	(iv) Topophilia

Codes:

• 1. (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
• 2. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
• 3. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
• 4. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

76. According to Masterman (1970), which of the following types of paradigm represents broadest area of consensus and total global view of the discipline?

• 1. Meta paradigm
• 2. Sociological paradigm
• 3. Construct paradigm
• 4. Artefact paradigm

77. Find out the incorrect statement from the following:

• 1. Humanistic geography gives central focus to human awareness and agency
• 2. Humanistic geography relies on positivist and/or Marxist methodology
• 3. Humanistic geography is inspired by the philosophy of existentialism
• 4. The concept of Topophilia is associated with humanistic geography

78. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true? (a) Feminist geography primarily studies how gender influences spatial patterns and human interactions with environments (b) Feminist geography ignores the role of race, class and sexuality in shaping spatial experiences (c) Studies in feminist geography often use qualitative methods to capture women’s lived experience in spaces (d) Feminist geographers argue that climate change impacts women and men equally in all contexts

Find out the correct option:

• 1. 1. and (b) only
• 2. 3. and (d) only
• 3. 1. and (d) only
• 4. 1. and (c) only

79. Assertion (A): Darwinism influenced environmental determinism in geographical thought by suggesting that natural environments shape human societies. Reason (R): Darwin’s Theory of Natural Selection proposed that human societies evolve independently of environmental factors.

Select the correct option:

• 1. Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
• 2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
• 3. 1. is correct, but (R) is false
• 4. 1. is false, but (R) is correct

80. Which of the following statements about the concept of ‘region’ in Geography is correct?

• 1. Formal regions are defined by uniform characteristics
• 2. Functional regions are based on cultural uniformity
• 3. Nodal regions lack a central point
• 4. Perceptual regions are defined by governmental boundaries

Questions 81–90: Remote Sensing & GIS

81. Match the following:

Satellite/Sensor	Spectral Band
(a) Landsat-8 OLI	(i) Near Infrared
(b) Sentinel-2 MSI	(ii) Shortwave Infrared
(c) MODIS	(iii) Thermal Infrared
(d) ASTER	(iv) Visible

*(Note: Exact text for Q81–88 from this section to be verified with original PDF if figures/diagrams are referenced)

89. The spectral range of the 10-bit SWIR band of LISS-3 sensor on Resourcesat-2 satellite is __________ μm

• 1. 1.55 – 1.70
• 2. 1.58 – 1.82
• 3. 1.61 – 1.93
• 4. 1.72 – 1.96

90. The SAR-based earth imaging satellite launched in 2020 by India is called

• 1. EOS-01
• 2. RISAT-2
• 3. RISAT-2BR1
• 4. Scat Sat-1

Questions 91–100: India — Physical & Economic Geography

91. Assertion (A): Jet streams influence glacier melting in the Himalayas. Reason (R): When polar jet stream moves northward, it brings warm air to the region accelerating glacier melt.

Choose the correct option:

• 1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
• 2. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not explain (A)
• 3. 1. is true, (R) is false
• 4. Both (A) and (R) are false

92. Desert Development Programme (DDP) in India was started by

• 1. National Wasteland Development Board
• 2. Ministry of Rural Development
• 3. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
• 4. National Commission on Agriculture

93. Assertion (A): Globalization has increased income inequality in India. Reason (R): Urban areas have benefited more from global trade and investment opportunities than rural areas.

Choose the correct option:

• 1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
• 2. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
• 3. 1. is true, but (R) is false
• 4. 1. is false, but (R) is true

94. Select the most appropriate statement. The Indian Sundarban Region is

• 1. eroding in the southern sea-facing section with little change in the northern interior section.
• 2. accreting in the southern sea-facing section with little change in the northern interior section.
• 3. eroding in the southern sea-facing section and accreting in the northern interior section.
• 4. accreting in both the southern sea-facing and northern interior sections.

95. Match the List-I with List-II:

List-I	List-II
(a) Bundelkhand	(i) Shiva
(b) Kota Plateau	(ii) Luna
(c) Arabian Sea Shelf	(iii) Ramgarh
(d) Buldhana	(iv) Dhala
	(v) Lonar

Codes:

• 1. (a)-(iv), (b)-(v), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
• 2. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(v)
• 3. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(v)
• 4. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

96. Arrange the following in chronological order and choose the correct answer from codes given: (i) Northward movement of Indian plate (ii) Deccan plateau hotspot volcanism (iii) Formation of Narmada fault system (iv) Collision of Indian plate with Eurasian plate

Codes:

• 1. (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
• 2. (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
• 3. (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)
• 4. (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)

97. Which of the following options shows the correct ascending order of the states in terms of population size (as per 2011 census)?

• 1. Gujarat—Andhra Pradesh—West Bengal—Uttar Pradesh
• 2. Punjab—Odisha—Kerala—West Bengal
• 3. Rajasthan—Gujarat—Assam—Karnataka
• 4. West Bengal—Bihar—Maharashtra—Uttar Pradesh

98. Which of the following statements is correct?

• 1. India is a large country with very little inter-regional economic inequality
• 2. The natural diversity of India is the result of differential human response to the country’s physical environment
• 3. India’s cultural diversity is the result of the long-continued nature-culture interaction taking place in different ecological settings of the country
• 4. All the river valleys of India have been experiencing same type of environmental problems irrespective of their location and size

99. The Brahmaputra Basin covers parts of the following countries:

• 1. Tibet, India, Bhutan and Bangladesh
• 2. India, China, Myanmar and Bangladesh
• 3. China, India, Bhutan, Bangladesh and Myanmar
• 4. China, India, Bhutan and Bangladesh

100. The correct ranking of the states with largest Manganese reserves is

• 1. Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka, Maharashtra
• 2. Odisha, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra
• 3. Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka
• 4. Odisha, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh

*— End of Question Paper —

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2024 Paper

WB SET 2024

Subject Code: 13 | Series: X | Maximum Marks: 200 | Time: 2 Hours

Instructions: 100 multiple-choice questions. All questions are compulsory. Each question carries 2 marks. No negative marking.

Questions 1–10: Geomorphology

1. Muscovite is

• 1. difficult to dissolve
• 2. dissolved by alkaline solution
• 3. dissolved by water
• 4. dissolved by acid

2. The elastic rebound theory best relates to

• 1. Avalanches
• 2. Geysers
• 3. Earthquakes
• 4. Landslides

3. Magnetic property of the earth results from

• 1. convective movement in the Asthenosphere
• 2. convective movement in the outer core
• 3. plate movement
• 4. rotation of earth

4. Shortening in the earth crust is typically accommodated by

• 1. Normal faults
• 2. Thrust faults
• 3. Horst and Graben structures
• 4. Pull-apart basins

5. Match the earth scientists with the geomorphic theories proposed by them:

Proponent	Theory on
(a) J. Cvijic	(i) Cirque formation
(b) W. D. Wilson	(ii) Landscape equilibrium
(c) G. K. Gilbert	(iii) Bornhardt formation
(d) M. F. Thomas	(iv) Slope retreat
	(v) Cavern formation

Codes:

• 1. a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-v
• 2. a-v, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
• 3. a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii
• 4. a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-v

6. Which one of the following supports the idea of Davis’ three stages of landform development?

• 1. Continental drift
• 2. Hypsometric integral
• 3. Rate of weathering and removal of weathered material
• 4. Trend surface residuals

7. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer:

List-I	List-II
(a) Waxing slope	(i) Concave
(b) Free face	(ii) Retreat with free face
(c) Debris slope	(iii) Convex
(d) Waning slope	(iv) Bedrock outcrop

• 1. a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
• 2. a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
• 3. a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
• 4. a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv

8. Which among the following is ideal for achievement of steady state in an open system?

• 1. Leeward slope of a frontal dune
• 2. A glacier or the upper limit of ablation zone
• 3. Opening of a swallow hole by ground subsidence in a limestone country
• 4. A stretch of a river between two closely-spaced bridges

9. Assertion (A): In a hillside, trees and posts are often seen to lean towards the direction of slope. Reason (R): In hillsides, groundwater movement usually follows the general direction of slope.

Select the correct option:

• 1. Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
• 2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
• 3. 1. is true, but (R) is false
• 4. 1. is false, but (R) is true

10. Rhythmic beach features like cusps and horns are evolved by

• 1. storm surges
• 2. dissipative waves, mainly during storms
• 3. wave-generated currents, like the rips
• 4. coastal cells

Questions 11–20: Climatology & Atmosphere

11. Arrange the terms used in vertical change of temperature in descending order as one goes up from Earth’s surface:

1. Adiabatic
2. Inversion
3. Subadiabatic
4. Superadiabatic

• 1. 2, 3, 1, 4
• 2. 1, 3, 2, 4
• 3. 3, 2, 4, 1
• 4. 4, 3, 1, 2

12. The Geostrophic balance is maintained with

• 1. the exact balance of incoming SW and outgoing LW radiation at the top of the atmosphere
• 2. the exact balance of vertical pressure gradient and gravity in the atmosphere
• 3. the exact balance of the coriolis force, horizontal pressure gradient force and friction
• 4. the exact balance of the coriolis force and the horizontal pressure gradient force

13. Which region of Rajasthan experiences AW type of climate as per Koppen’s climatic classification?

• 1. Southern most region
• 2. Northern most region
• 3. Western region
• 4. North-eastern region

14. Consider the following statements: (a) Jet streams occur in the Northern Hemisphere only (b) Some cyclones may not develop an eye (c) The temperature inside the eye of the cyclone is nearly 10°C lesser than that of the surroundings

Which of the statement(s) is/are correct?

• 1. 1. only
• 2. 2. and (c) only
• 3. 2. only
• 4. 3. only

15. Assertion (A): Along equator no cyclone occurs. Reason (R): Angular momentum is maximum along equator.

Select the correct option:

• 1. Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
• 2. Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
• 3. 1. is correct, but (R) is false
• 4. 1. is false, but (R) is correct

16. The term oscillation is associated with El Niño and La Niña because

• 1. their fluctuations are perfectly periodic
• 2. their fluctuations are not perfectly periodic
• 3. they recur in the form of regular cycles
• 4. their fluctuations are related with Northern Hemisphere Jet Stream periodicity

17. Which one of the following events is associated with occasional weak monsoon rains in the Indian sub-continent?

• 1. La Niña
• 2. Movement of jet streams
• 3. El Niño
• 4. Greenhouse effect on global level

18. Read the following statements on mountain winds and select the correct option: (a) Catabatic winds move upslope driven by warmer surface temperature on mountain slope (b) Catabatic winds move downslope when mountain surface is colder than surrounding air (c) Anabatic winds move up slope driven by warmer surface temperature on mountain slope

• 1. 2. and (c) are correct
• 2. 1. is correct but (c) is incorrect
• 3. 2. is correct but (c) is incorrect
• 4. 1. and (c) are incorrect

19. The measure of maximum size of particles that a stream can transport is called

• 1. Stream Capacity
• 2. Stream Ability
• 3. Stream Capability
• 4. Stream Competence

20. In oceans, Rule of Constant Proportions relates to

• 1. Pressure
• 2. Salinity
• 3. Density
• 4. Nutrients

Questions 21–30: Oceanography

21. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct option:

List-I	List-II
(a) Challenger Ridge	(i) North Pacific Ocean
(b) Albatross Cordillera	(ii) North Atlantic Ocean
(c) Azores Island	(iii) South Atlantic Ocean
(d) Kuril Island	(iv) South Pacific Ocean

Codes:

• 1. a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i
• 2. a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
• 3. a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
• 4. a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i

22. Which of the following options relates to the following statements? (a) It is characterized by earthquake (b) It traces boundaries between several tectonic plates (c) It is almost parallel to the ‘Ring of Fire’

• 1. Mid Oceanic Ridges
• 2. Oceanic Trenches
• 3. Abyssal plain
• 4. Pelagic Zone

23. In oceans, pycnocline relates to

• 1. surface waters
• 2. zone below the surface waters and above the deep waters
• 3. deep waters
• 4. waters from surface to bottom zones

24. The closest approximation of the global mean sea level rise since the start of satellite altimetry in 1993 is

• 1. 70 mm
• 2. 60 mm
• 3. 90 mm
• 4. 100 mm

25. Waves break as they approach the coast because

• 1. water is pulled down by the gravity as wave steepness exceeds a critical value
• 2. friction with the bathymetric profile causes refraction of the wave train
• 3. speed of wave movement exceeds the speed of wave-induced currents
• 4. rotational speed of water particles constituting the waves exceeds the speed of wave movement

26. Translatory wave develops

• 1. in the land-ward side after wave breaking
• 2. in the sea-ward side before wave breaking
• 3. in the deep sea
• 4. inside the estuary

27. Read the following facts about rotating tide: (a) Tidal range increases away from the nodal point (b) Tidal range reduces away from the nodal point (c) Velocity of tidal wave increases with depth of ocean (d) Co-tidal line rotates in clockwise direction

Which among the following options is correct?

• 1. 1. and (c) are correct
• 2. 1. false but (d) is correct
• 3. 2. is false but (d) is correct
• 4. 2. and (d) are correct

28. Which of the following is wrongly matched?

• 1. Benguela Current — Cold
• 2. Humboldt Current — Cold
• 3. Kamchatka Current — Warm
• 4. Kuroshio Current — Warm

29. Height of storm surge in a coastal region does not depend on which among the following?

• 1. near-shore bathymetry
• 2. position of the surge affected area — left or right — related to the storm track
• 3. presence of protective vegetation like mangroves in the intertidal area fringing the coast
• 4. mean sustained wind velocity of the storm

30. Sustainable development goal ‘Life below Water’ aims at conserving and sustainable use of

• 1. Ground Water resources
• 2. River and Stream resources
• 3. Marine resources
• 4. Wetland resources

Questions 31–40: Biogeography & Environment

31. 10% law of energy flow model was coined by

• 1. R. Lindeman
• 2. E. P. Odum
• 3. A. Leopold
• 4. R. Carson

32. The maximum permissible limit set by Bureau of Indian Standards for nitrate level in drinking water is

• 1. 45 mg/l
• 2. 40 mg/l
• 3. 50 mg/l
• 4. 35 mg/l

33. The establishment of a plant in a new habitat is called

• 1. Speciation
• 2. Ecesis
• 3. Colonification
• 4. Phytospread

34. The formation of the 90 East Ridge is related to

• 1. Crozet eruptions
• 2. Kerguelen Hotspot
• 3. Elan Blank Fissure
• 4. Mid-Indian Ridge

35. “From Gandhi (as well as Spinoza), Naess reinforced his intuitions about equal ‘right’ of all species to flourish on the planet together with the Eastern doctrine of Ahimsa.” What does this relate to?

• 1. Shallow ecology
• 2. Cosmic ecology
• 3. Deep ecology
• 4. Philanthropic ecology

36. Which of the following is not a soil erosion assessment method?

• 1. RUSLE
• 2. CORINE
• 3. PESERA
• 4. CISRO

37. Tropical evergreen forests are usually found in areas having ________ of rainfall and having a temperature range of ________.

• 1. more than 200 cm, 15–30°C
• 2. 100–200 cm, 30–35°C
• 3. 50–100 cm, 10–20°C
• 4. below 50 cm, 20–35°C

38. The 28th Conference of Parties was held at

• 1. Baku
• 2. Katowice
• 3. Sharm el-Sheikh
• 4. Dubai

39. Which of the following is not directly associated to ecosystem restoration?

• 1. Introduction of native plants
• 2. Dam decommissioning
• 3. Restriction of grazing
• 4. Restriction of anthropogenic control

40. Which of the following is a qualitative environmental assessment method developed in 1971 by USGS?

• 1. Leopold Matrix
• 2. Diagonal Matrix
• 3. Hash Table
• 4. Transformation Matrix

Questions 41–50: Population & Settlement Geography

41. Constrictive population pyramids denote

• 1. effects of war, disease, pestilence on population
• 2. excessive birth rates
• 3. populations that are elderly and ageing
• 4. the demography of pre-industrial population

42. Which among the following involves both supraglacial and subglacial processes?

• 1. Sublimation
• 2. Melting
• 3. Calving
• 4. Evaporation

43. Who among the following proposed that fertility rate declines when density of population increases?

• 1. M. T. Sadler
• 2. Thomas Malthus
• 3. D. Ricardo
• 4. W. Zelinsky

44. Which of these indices takes into account health, education, economics and politics in measuring status of women?

• 1. Gender Empowerment Measure
• 2. Global Gender Gap Index
• 3. Gender Development Index
• 4. Gender Equality Index

45. Feminisation of the farm sector is gradually on the rise because

• 1. more women opt to work in the farm sector
• 2. poverty drives women to work as farm labourer
• 3. increase in male migration from rural to urban areas
• 4. there is greater equality in the wage structure in comparison to previous years

46. Match the settlement characteristics in List-I with the patterns of the settlements in List-II:

List-I (Characteristics)	List-II (Pattern of Settlements)
(a) Sites close to supply of water	(i) Star
(b) Villages aligned to transport routes	(ii) Circular
(c) Dwelling units spread out in several directions	(iii) Wet Point
(d) Settlements developing around a fort/temple	(iv) Linear

Codes:

• 1. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
• 2. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
• 3. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
• 4. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

47. Which one of the following plays a deciding role in rural to urban migration?

• 1. Low employment opportunity in the rural areas
• 2. High pressure of population on the village resources
• 3. Economic inequality among the rural people
• 4. General tendency of migration to the urban areas

48. Which amongst the following is not a consequence of accelerated migration from rural to urban areas?

• 1. Growth of unregulated settlements or slums
• 2. Fast increase in urban population
• 3. Improvement in the rural economy due to lower population pressure
• 4. Development of urban sprawl

49. Which among the following statements on hamlet settlement is not true?

• 1. Transport network is less likely to be extensive in hamlet
• 2. Commonly hamlet forms through historical farming practices
• 3. Hamlet settlements decline due to government intervention through investments in rural areas
• 4. Hamlet is more likely to be community oriented

50. Who coined the term ‘Urban Revolution’ to denote the shift from small village based societies to politically complex urban societies?

• 1. Gordon Childe
• 2. Henri Pirenne
• 3. Lewis Mumford
• 4. Harris Ullman

Questions 51–60: Economic Geography & Regional Development

51. Which of the following statements about electricity consumption in developing countries is more appropriate?

• 1. Increasing Government investment on alternative energy sources reduces per capita electricity consumption
• 2. Limited access to technology and economic activities limits per capita electricity consumption
• 3. Higher level electrical tariff reduces per capita electricity consumption
• 4. Energy efficient technology reduces per capita electricity consumption

52. The India-WRIS stands for

• 1. Water Resources Information System
• 2. Watershed & River basin Information System
• 3. Wetland Resource Information System
• 4. Watershed Resources Information System

53. Who, among the following scholars, contributed notably towards understanding the origin and dispersal of agriculture?

• 1. Torsten Hagerstrand
• 2. Carl Ottin Sauer
• 3. John Carrier Weaver
• 4. Peter Gould

54. Which of the following explains the meaning of agricultural productivity?

• 1. It is a measure of agricultural efficiency
• 2. The total crop output of an area
• 3. The yield of crops per unit of area
• 4. The level of agricultural development in an area

55. The term ‘Knowledge Industry’ was introduced by

• 1. Paul Krugman
• 2. Fritz Machlup
• 3. Robert Solow
• 4. Amartya Sen

56. Whose proposition suggests that the ‘Behavioral Approach’ strongly determines location of an industry?

• 1. E. M. Hoover
• 2. A. Pred
• 3. A. Losch
• 4. A. Weber

57. Choose the correct answer from the following. The Gamma Index (γ) is

• 1. ratio between number of arcs and edges in a network
• 2. ratio between observed nodes and edges
• 3. ratio between observed vertices and nodes
• 4. ratio between the observed number of edges and vertices in a network

58. Assertion (A): In the context of transportation, ‘Access is not accessibility’. Reason (R): While access is uniform, accessibility is not.

Choose the correct option:

• 1. Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
• 2. Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
• 3. 1. is true, but (R) is false
• 4. 18. is true, but (A) is false

59. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Social Movement)	List-II (Leadership)
(a) Chipko Movement	(i) R. M. Munda
(b) Narmada Banchao Andolan	(ii) Amrita Devi
(c) Jharkhand Movement	(iii) Sunderlal Bahugana
(d) Bishnoi Movement	(iv) Medha Patkar
	(v) Anna Hazare

Codes:

• 1. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
• 2. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
• 3. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
• 4. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

60. Headquarters of SAARC is situated at

• 1. Delhi
• 2. Kathmandu
• 3. Dhaka
• 4. Islamabad

Questions 61–70: Cultural & Political Geography

61. The following two lists state themes in cultural geography and their definition. Match the two lists:

List-I (Themes)	List-II (Definition)
(a) Cultural ecology	(i) Relationship between culture group and its natural environment
(b) Cultural realm	(ii) Set of cultural regions grouped together
(c) Cultural hearth	(iii) Built environment
(d) Cultural landscape	(iv) Nuclear areas where cultural traits, ideas and technologies develop and diffuse

Codes:

• 1. (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
• 2. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
• 3. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
• 4. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

62. Which of the following statements is not true?

• 1. Cultural regions are uniform in size
• 2. South-east Asian cultural realm is a transitional culture where different cultures have mingled
• 3. Cultural traits are the smallest units of culture
• 4. Cultural diffusion invariably results in cultural conversion

63. Which of the following statements about Gujjar Bakrawalas is not true?

• 1. They are nomadic pastoralists and follow transhumance
• 2. They are affected by restricted grazing due to strict forest conservation laws
• 3. They are mainly Hindus and oral folklores have been passed down the generations
• 4. Modern infrastructure development disrupted their traditional migration routes

64. Which one of the following statements does not define culture?

• 1. Culture is genetically transferred
• 2. Culture is shared
• 3. Culture is adaptive
• 4. Culture is variable

65. The wellbeing approach of “Who Gets What, Where, and How” in geography was propounded by:

• 1. Richard Hartshorne
• 2. D. M. Smith
• 3. David Harvey
• 4. Richard Peet

66. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Language group)	List-II (Language)
(a) Indo-Aryan	(i) Lahuli
(b) Dravidian	(ii) Telugu
(c) Sino-Tibetan	(iii) Santhali
(d) Austric	(iv) Bengali

Codes:

• 1. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
• 2. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
• 3. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
• 4. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

67. The Durga Puja of Kolkata has been enlisted as

• 1. UNESCO tangible cultural heritage
• 2. IUCN intangible cultural heritage
• 3. UNWTO intangible cultural heritage
• 4. UNESCO intangible cultural heritage

68. The basic objective of the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) is to

• 1. stabilize the melting of Antarctic ice sheets
• 2. stabilize greenhouse gas concentration in the atmosphere
• 3. reduce carbon emissions in the developing countries to the level of 1992
• 4. stabilize ozone layer depletion

69. Which among the following statements about the ASEAN is not correct?

• 1. It is engaged in addressing territorial disputes in South China Sea
• 2. It acts to introduce standard currencies among member states
• 3. It faces the challenge of varying levels of economic development among the member countries
• 4. It works to foster regional co-operation and diplomatic dialogues

70. Which among the following rivers marks the boundary between India and Pakistan?

• 1. The Indus River
• 2. The Beas River
• 3. The Satluj River
• 4. The Ravi River

Questions 71–80: Geographical Thought & Philosophy

71. Who among the following scholars stated that “Egypt is the gift of the Nile”?

• 1. Strabo
• 2. Aristotle
• 3. Ptolemy
• 4. Herodotus

72. Which of the following is incorrectly matched?

• 1. Nomothetic — a law-seeking scientific approach
• 2. Ideographic — a quantitative model building approach
• 3. Iconic model — an exact physical representation
• 4. Humanism — a system of thought based on human interest and values

73. In which of the following Chinese dynasties, the study of geography gained significance due to the discovery of the first compass?

• 1. Ming dynasty
• 2. Han dynasty
• 3. Song dynasty
• 4. Xiah dynasty

74. Select the correct sequence of rivers arranged in the order of decreasing length:

• 1. Krishna, Mahanadi, Kaveri, Godavari
• 2. Godavari, Krishna, Mahanadi, Kaveri
• 3. Kaveri, Godavari, Krishna, Mahanadi
• 4. Mahanadi, Kaveri, Godavari, Krishna

75. Match the books in List-I with their respective authors from List-II:

List-I	List-II
(a) Geographica	(i) Robert N. Wilson
(b) Explanation in Geography	(ii) Sir Alexander Cunningham
(c) A History of Geographical Discovery and Exploration	(iii) J. N. L. Baker
(d) The Ancient Geography of India	(iv) David Harvey
	(v) Strabo

Codes:

• 1. (a)-(v), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
• 2. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(v), (d)-(iii)
• 3. (a)-(v), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
• 4. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(v), (d)-(i)

76. Hypothesis testing is the popular method under

• 1. Modernism
• 2. Positivism
• 3. Logical Positivism
• 4. Determinism

77. “Knowledge is subject to further investigation, questioning, and critical scrutiny” is the guiding principle of

• 1. Empiricism
• 2. Fallibilism
• 3. Possibilism
• 4. Humanism

78. The model, constructed on the basis of observed regularities through inductive approach is

• 1. Priori model
• 2. Posteriori model
• 3. Normative model
• 4. Predictive model

79. Nomothetic approach focuses on

• 1. individual cases or events
• 2. producing general statements
• 3. radical alternatives of system analysis
• 4. regional analysis

80. Which of the following is not a spatial data source of geographic information?

• 1. Isohaline map
• 2. Isohyet map
• 3. Isoneph map
• 4. Isostatic map

Questions 81–90: Statistics, Remote Sensing & GIS

81. Oil seed production in five districts: P, Q, R, S, T are 900, 1800, 2700, 3600, 1800 quintals respectively are to be represented in a pie diagram. How much will be inscribed angle at the centre for district R?

• 1. 30°
• 2. 90°
• 3. 120°
• 4. 180°

82. 0.05 level of significance in hypothesis testing means:

• 1. there is 5% chance of not committing type-I error
• 2. there is 5% chance in committing type II error
• 3. there is 5% chance in committing both type I and type II errors
• 4. there is 95% chance of not committing type I error

83. In a distribution, mean is 12, median is 20 and mode is 32. The distribution is said to be

• 1. Normal
• 2. Positively skewed
• 3. Negatively skewed
• 4. Bilaterally symmetrical

84. Which among the following satellite sensor bands is best for discriminating land from water?

• 1. Blue
• 2. Green
• 3. Red
• 4. Near Infrared

85. Which among the following cannot be used for georeferencing?

• 1. Hand-held GNSS unit
• 2. Aerial photograph
• 3. Differential GPS unit
• 4. Map coordinates

86. Which among the following represents the bands of the LISS-3 sensor?

• 1. Green, Red, NIR, SWIR
• 2. Blue, Green, Red, SWIR
• 3. Blue, Green, Red, NIR
• 4. IR, Red, Green, Blue

87. Which among the following is not a source of DEM?

• 1. HySIS data
• 2. ALOS PASAR data
• 3. Survey of India topographical maps published prior to the open series maps
• 4. Cartosat-1 data

88. In accuracy analysis, the average positive difference between computed and desired outcome value is called as

• 1. Mean positive Error
• 2. Mean Absolute Error
• 3. Mean Standard Error
• 4. Root Mean Squared Error

89. Machine learning has various function representation. Which of the following is not a symbolic function?

• 1. Decision trees
• 2. Rules in proportional logic
• 3. Rules in first order predicate logic
• 4. Hidden Markov Models (HMM)

90. Consider the following statements in respect of formation of landforms in India: (a) The Meghalaya plateau is structurally an extended part of the Deccan Plateau (b) The Himalayan Mountain System originated from a geosyncline called Tethys and it is still rising in places (c) The Aravalli Range is geologically the oldest mountain of India

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• 1. Only (a) is correct
• 2. All (a), (b) and (c) are correct
• 3. Only (c) is correct
• 4. 2. and (c) are correct

Questions 91–100: India — Physical & Economic Geography

91. According to the Government of India, the number of agroclimatic zones of India is

• 1. 9
• 2. 12
• 3. 13
• 4. 18

92. Which of the following National Parks is not located in the Himalayas?

• 1. Kishtwar NP
• 2. Dudhwa NP
• 3. Mouling NP
• 4. Pin Valley NP

93. Which of the following statements is correct?

• 1. Food Corporation of India is engaged in regulating food price to ensure food security in India
• 2. ICDS program in India focuses on the food security of children and pregnant women
• 3. Antyodaya Anna Yojana is aimed to address rural poverty
• 4. Enhancing agricultural productivity is possible by expansion of agricultural land

94. The principal causes of soil damage in Punjab and Haryana is

• 1. Deforestation
• 2. Soil Erosion
• 3. Excessive Cultivation
• 4. Salinity and Water logging

95. Data on nutrition status are found in which of the following sources?

• 1. Census of India
• 2. National Sample Survey Organisation
• 3. National Family Health Survey
• 4. Civil Registration of Vital Statistics

96. Which of the following states of India possesses uranium?

• 1. Arunachal Pradesh
• 2. Uttarakhand
• 3. Meghalaya
• 4. Manipur

97. Which of the following states of India is the largest producer of ragi?

• 1. Tamil Nadu
• 2. Karnataka
• 3. Maharashtra
• 4. Andhra Pradesh

98. Abolition of Industrial licensing in India for most sectors was made in which of the following policies?

• 1. Industrial policy 2004
• 2. Industrial policy 1948
• 3. Industrial policy 1956
• 4. Industrial policy 1991

99. Assertion (A): An important characteristic feature of rural to rural migration in India is the preponderance of females in the stream. Reason (R): Female migration in India is greatly influenced by the prevalence of patri-local marriage system.

Select the correct option:

• 1. Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
• 2. Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
• 3. 1. is correct, but (R) is false
• 4. 1. is false, but (R) is correct

100. The ICT industries contribution to Indian GDP currently is around

• 1. 5 – 10 per cent
• 2. 11 – 15 per cent
• 3. 16 – 20 per cent

• 4. 21 per cent

*— End of Question Paper —

---

2023 Paper

WB SET 2023

Subject Code: 13 | Paper: II | Year: 25/2023 Maximum Marks: 200 | Time: 2 Hours Total Questions: 100 (All compulsory, 2 marks each)

Instructions for Candidates

1. Write your Roll Number in the space provided on the top of this page as well as on the OMR Sheet provided.
2. This paper consists of One Hundred (100) multiple-choice type questions. All the questions are compulsory. Each question carries two marks.
3. Each Question has four alternative responses marked: (A) (B) (C) (D). You have to darken the circle on the correct response against each question.
4. Use only Black Ball point pen.
5. Use of any calculator, mobile phone, electronic devices/gadgets etc. is strictly prohibited.
6. There is no negative marks for incorrect answer.

Section 1: Geomorphology (Q1–Q10)

1. When the axis of the fold is tilted and it forms an angle between the axis and the horizontal plane it is known as

• 1. Overturned fold
• 2. Plunge fold
• 3. Monoclinal fold
• 4. Nappe

2. Assertion (A): The Rajmahal Hills, formed by eruption of basalts from the Kerguelen Hotspot 100 million years ago, are known for its basalt quarries. Reason (R): The 90-E ridge partly connects the Rajmahal Hills with the hotspot that erupted it.

• 1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• 2. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• 3. 1. is correct but (R) is false.
• 4. 1. is false but (R) is correct.

3. Steep rectilinear slope without change of angle is designated as

• 1. Haldenhang
• 2. Hogback
• 3. Debris slope
• 4. Primarrumpf

4. Which among the following letters is associated with unweathered stones at the base of a soil profile?

• 1. D
• 2. R
• 3. S
• 4. W

5. Slow downhill movement of moist regolith under sustained shear stress without heaving is known as

• 1. Rockslide
• 2. Mud flow
• 3. Frost heave
• 4. Soil creep

6. Clay represents grains of

• 1. < 0.5 μm
• 2. < 1 μm
• 3. < 2 μm
• 4. < 4 μm

7. Which of the following is not the direct contribution of weathering in mass movement?

• 1. Winnowing of the finer particles.
• 2. Increase of water holding capacity in finer particles resulting in pore-water pressure.
• 3. Breaking of particles into smaller size and reduction of angle of repose.
• 4. Deduction of shear strength of materials by disintegration and decomposition.

8. The ratio of internal force to viscous force in a fluid is known by

• 1. Froude number
• 2. Rossby number
• 3. Ekman number
• 4. Raynolds number

9. At-a-station hydraulic geometry equations of river indicated values of ‘b’ and ‘f’ to be 0.22 and 0.64, respectively. What is the expected value of ‘m’?

• 1. 0.34
• 2. 0.24
• 3. 0.14
• 4. 0.04

10. In areas modified by glaciers, kames represent

• 1. A detached block of glacial ice.
• 2. Remnants of disjoined lateral moraines.
• 3. Terraces formed in valley sidewalls due to change in glacial mass balance.
• 4. Mounds of stratified sands and gravels.

Section 2: Climatology & Atmosphere (Q11–Q20)

11. Which of the following statement is not true for katafront?

• 1. Katafronts are less active.
• 2. Warm airmass sinks relative to cold airmass.
• 3. Warm airmass rises relative to the cold airmass.
• 4. In Katafronts warm air is overrun by dry descending air.

12. Which of the following statement on insolation is not correct?

• 1. Solar wavelengths shorter than 0.285 µm hardly penetrate below 20 km altitude of atmosphere and cannot reach earth’s surface.
• 2. Solar radiation is mostly in the short wave range of < 4 µm.
• 3. About 38% of incoming solar energy is absorbed by ozone and water vapour.
• 4. Insolation varies according to latitude.

13. List-I shows that astronomical effects on solar radiation and List-II shows their cycles. Choose the correct match from the following options:

List-I	List-II
(a) Eccentricity of earth’s orbit	(i) 21,000 years
(b) Axial tilt	(ii) 41,000 years
(c) Wobble and shift of axis at the time of perihelion	(iii) 95,000 years

Codes: (a) (b) (c)

14. List-I shows the components of atmosphere and List-II shows their possible sources.

List-I	List-II
(a) CH₄	(i) Respiration and decomposition by biota
(b) N₂O	(ii) Microbial activity in soil
(c) CO₂	(iii) Enteric fermentation in animal

Codes: (a) (b) (c)

15. Identify the criteria which is not related to the Bergeron-Fiendeisen Process:

• 1. Mixed clouds with co-existence of ice and water.
• 2. Differences in saturation vapour pressure.
• 3. Migration of water vapour towards sublimation nuclei.
• 4. The smaller droplets must be close to the axis of fall of larger drops to increase the collection efficiency.

16. Which of the following terms is a measure of the amount of water vapour in the air as a proportion of the maximum amount of water vapour the air could hold at the same temperature?

• 1. Sublimation point
• 2. Relative humidity
• 3. Dew point
• 4. Evaporation rate

17. Assertion (A): In orographic rainfall, the windward slope of a mountain range gets more rainfall than the lee slope. Reason (R): The warm humid air that descends down the slope gets warmed up and dry.

Codes:

• 1. Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• 2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• 3. 1. is true, but (R) is false.
• 4. 1. is false, but (R) is true.

18. Assertion (A): Temperature varies at different time of day. Reason (R): Radiation intensity per unit area as well as amount of reflection depends on the angle between solar rays and a tangent to the earth’s surface at the time of observation.

Codes:

• 1. Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• 2. Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• 3. 1. is correct, but (R) is false.
• 4. 1. is false, but (R) is correct.

19. Which among the following statements on tropical cyclone is not correct?

• 1. Tropical cyclone mostly occurs in late summer and autumn when equatorial trough is displaced towards north and south.
• 2. It does not occur along equator.
• 3. At the eye of cyclone, adiabatic warming of descending airmass accentuates high temperature.
• 4. It mostly occurs beneath jet stream.

20. The vertical temperature gradient called environmental lapse rate is

• 1. 0.0065 °C/m
• 2. 0.0060 °C/m
• 3. 0.0055 °C/m
• 4. 0.0050 °C/m

Section 3: Oceanography (Q21–Q30)

21. Assertion (A): Sea surface temperature is less than air temperature between 40°N to 40°S and thereafter towards pole in both hemispheres it is opposite. Reason (R): Insolation is the sole source of ocean temperature which is high along equator and reduces towards pole.

Codes:

• 1. Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• 2. Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• 3. 1. is true, but (R) is false.
• 4. 1. is false, but (R) is true.

22. Assertion (A): Coasts are relatively warmer near onshore wind but colder where wind blows from land towards sea. Reason (R): Onshore wind piles up warm water near the coast whereas wind from land drives warm water away from the coast and cold bottom water upwells.

Codes:

• 1. Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• 2. Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• 3. 1. is correct, and (R) is false.
• 4. 1. is false, and (R) is correct.

23. Which of the following statements about ocean-floor relief is false?

• 1. Ocean-floor relief is more undulating than land relief.
• 2. Average depth of ocean is about -3800 m and average elevation of continental landmass is 840 m.
• 3. Deepest parts of the ocean always lie in ocean floor away from the coast.
• 4. Relief is more complex along active continental margin than a passive one.

24. In ocean, the rule of constant proportion relates to

• 1. Salinity
• 2. Water mass identification
• 3. T-S diagram
• 4. Pressure : Density ratio

25. A line connecting equal depths below a water surface is called

• 1. Isobase
• 2. Isodeep
• 3. Isodepth
• 4. Isobath

26. The circular orbital motion of water molecules in waves declines with depth. Eventually at some depth there is no more circular movement.

• 1. This is the wave base and is equivalent to 1/2 of the wavelength.
• 2. This is the wave base and is equivalent to 1/20 of the wavelength.
• 3. This is wave amplitude and is equivalent to 1/20 of the wavelength.
• 4. This is the ocean bottom and is equivalent to 1/2 of the wavelength.

27. The sea water is saline because of

• 1. Operation of the hydrological cycle.
• 2. Volcanic out-gassing.
• 3. Solution of salts derived from ocean floor rocks.
• 4. Evaporite formation.

28. Ekman transport in the southern hemisphere occurs

• 1. 45° to the left of the wind direction.
• 2. 45° to the right of the wind direction.
• 3. 90° to the left of the wind direction.
• 4. 90° to the right of the wind direction.

29. Sea water density does not decrease with

• 1. Increasing salinity
• 2. Decreasing pressure
• 3. Increasing temperature
• 4. Decreasing depth

30. Development of the earth’s tidal bulge on the opposite direction of the moon is best explained by

• 1. Centripetal force
• 2. Gravitational force
• 3. Centrifugal force
• 4. Coriolis force

Section 4: Biogeography & Environment (Q31–Q40)

31. Read the following statements and choose the correct option:

• 1. In nitrification NH₄⁺ is converted to NO₃⁻.
• 2. In denitrification bacteria uses NO₃⁻ for metabolism.
• 3. Nitrogen is more abundant element in living organism than carbon, hydrogen and oxygen.
• 4. In nitrogen fixation, nitrogen is converted to ammonia.

Codes:

• 1. (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct but (iv) is incorrect.
• 2. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
• 3. (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct but (i) is incorrect.
• 4. (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct but (ii) is incorrect.

32. Assertion (A): Corals become bleached. Reason (R): Zooxanthellae is damaged by intense ultraviolet radiation, xenobiotic contaminants, alteration of ocean salinity & temperature and intense sedimentation.

Codes:

• 1. Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• 2. Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• 3. 1. is correct, but (R) is wrong.
• 4. 1. is wrong, but (R) is correct.

33. Assertion (A): Ozone hole centers on polar regions. Reason (R): During dark austral winter, ozone along with destructive pollutants (CFC and NOx) are trapped in circum-polar vortex. In the austral spring this ozone is destroyed.

Codes:

• 1. Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the full explanation of (A).
• 2. Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is not the full explanation of (A).
• 3. 1. is correct, but (R) is wrong.
• 4. 1. is wrong, but (R) is correct.

34. Read the following statements on primary productivity and choose the correct option:

• 1. In deep sea hydrothermal ecosystem, initial source of energy is not the solar radiation.
• 2. About 50% of incoming solar radiation is photosynthetically active radiation (PAR).
• 3. Only a meagre quantity (2–10%) of PAR is used in primary production on which entire world sustains.

Codes:

• 1. 1. and (ii) are correct but (iii) is wrong.
• 2. 2. and (iii) are correct but (i) is wrong.
• 3. 1. and (iii) are correct but (ii) is wrong.
• 4. (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.

35. In terrestrial ecosystem, the biomass is about 90–99% less at each higher trophic level. This is known as

• 1. Biomass cascade
• 2. Food chain
• 3. Biomass pyramid
• 4. Ecological succession

36. Which among the following is not an air pollutant?

• 1. Arsenopyrite
• 2. Carbon monoxide
• 3. Volatile organic compounds
• 4. Nitric oxide

37. The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) is also known as

• 1. Kyoto protocol
• 2. Vienna convention
• 3. Earth summit
• 4. Montreal protocol

38. The 2-degree climate target has set the following year to achieve it

• 1. 2050
• 2. 2075
• 3. 2100
• 4. 2125

39. Which among the following statements on deep ecology is correct?

• 1. An ecosystem with more than five tropic levels.
• 2. A firmly established ecosystem not threatened by anthropogenic intervention.
• 3. An environmental philosophy.
• 4. Ecology of the bathyal and abyssal zones of the ocean.

40. Which among the following is the correct sequence of hosting Conference of Parties since 2017?

• 1. Madrid, Katowice, Bonn, Glasgow, Sharm el-Sheikh
• 2. Bonn, Katowice, Madrid, Glasgow, Sharm el-Sheikh
• 3. Katowice, Madrid, Bonn, Sharm el-Sheikh, Glasgow
• 4. Bonn, Madrid, Katowice, Glasgow, Sharm el-Sheikh

Section 5: Population & Settlement Geography (Q41–Q50)

41. Which one of the following areas is characterised by low fertility rate, low mortality rate and high population growth rate?

• 1. The urban areas
• 2. The rural areas
• 3. The economically under developed areas
• 4. Both (A) and (C)

42. Assertion (A): The female work participation in the urban areas of India is lower than that of male work participation. Reason (R): The sex ratio (number of female per thousand males) is significantly lower in urban areas of India than that of rural areas.

Codes:

• 1. Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• 2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• 3. 1. is true, but (R) is false.
• 4. 1. is false, but (R) is true.

43. Which of the following statements relating to population characteristics is/are correct?

• 1. The trend of population growth in India can be best represented through exponential trend method.
• 2. The demographic transition model suggests that mortality rate determines fertility rate in the form of positive relationship.
• 3. Horizontal occupational mobility refers to the process of change in the occupation from one type to another.
• 4. Although the arithmetic density of population in mountainous region is quite low, its physiological density can be quite high.

Codes:

• 1. Only (i)
• 2. Only (i) and (ii)
• 3. (i), (iii) and (iv)
• 4. (i), (ii) and (iv)

44. Assertion (A): Sex ratio of population in Kerala and other parts of Southern India is very high. Reason (R): The life expectancy of female population is higher than male population in Kerala and other parts of Southern India.

Codes:

• 1. Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• 2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• 3. 1. is true, but (R) is false.
• 4. 1. is false, but (R) is true.

45. Among the following statements of population as per 2011 census data, which is/are correct?

• 1. The state with highest proportion of Christian population is Mizoram.
• 2. The state with higher proportion of Hindu population is Himachal Pradesh.
• 3. The state with higher proportion of scheduled castes population is Punjab.
• 4. The state with highest proportion of Muslim population is Assam.

Codes:

• 1. 1. only
• 2. 1. and (ii)
• 3. 2. and (iii)
• 4. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

46. Which of the following relating to Rank-Size relationship of cities is/are correct?

• 1. According to Rank-Size Rule, Pr = KR⁻ᵇ
• 2. According to the law of primate city, the Primacy Index = P1/P2
• 3. The analysis of Rank-Size relationship suggests that the gradient of regression line is steeper in the urban systems of developed countries as compared to that of less developed countries.

Codes:

• 1. Only (i)
• 2. Only (ii)
• 3. 1. and (iii)
• 4. 1. and (ii)

47. Ethnicity tends to produce social areas of neighbourhoods which are

• 1. Sectors
• 2. Clusters or nuclei
• 3. Radial
• 4. Concentric zones

48. Which of the following is correctly arranged sequentially, from the earliest to the latest the types of social changes as identified by Mumford’s theory of origin of towns?

• 1. Paleotechnic, Neotechnic, Eotechnic, Biotechnic
• 2. Eotechnic, Paleotechnic, Neotechnic, Biotechnic
• 3. Biotechnic, Neotechnic, Paleotechnic, Eotechnic
• 4. Paleotechnic, Eotechnic, Neotechnic, Biotechnic

49. In the context of Urban Economic Base Theory, if the non-basic employment is higher than the basic employment in an urban unit, it leads to

• 1. Urban economic stagnation
• 2. Urban economic recession
• 3. Balanced urban growth
• 4. Urban economic momentum

50. Which of the following is/are correct?

• 1. Patrick Geddes – City region
• 2. Walter Christaller – Settlement hierarchy
• 3. Colin Clark – Urban population density gradient
• 4. W. J. Reilly – Breaking Point theory

Codes:

• 1. 1. only
• 2. 1. and (iii)
• 3. (ii), (iii) and (iv)
• 4. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Section 6: Economic Geography & Regional Development (Q51–Q60)

51. With respect to contemporary production and export of agricultural commodity or mineral which of the following statements is/are correct?

• 1. India is the largest producer and exporter of mica in the world.
• 2. Australia is the largest producer and exporter of iron ore in the world.
• 3. China is the largest producer and exporter of rice in the world.

Codes:

• 1. 1. only
• 2. 2. only
• 3. 1. and (iii)
• 4. 1. and (ii)

52. Which one of the following sequences with respect to Rostow’s economic growth model is correct?

• 1. Traditional society, drive to maturity, take-off, high mass consumption.
• 2. Traditional society, take-off, drive to maturity, high mass consumption.
• 3. Traditional society, take-off, high mass consumption, drive to maturity.
• 4. Traditional society, high mass consumption, take-off, drive to maturity.

53. Which one of the following characteristics is not associated with resource?

• 1. It is functional and operational.
• 2. It is created through human efforts.
• 3. It is exhaustible and it has value in exchange.
• 4. It is dynamic.

54. Which one of the following countries is involved in the production of either rice or wheat only?

• 1. China
• 2. USA
• 3. Japan
• 4. Indonesia

55. Assertion (A): Intensive subsistence agriculture is characterised by high output per unit of land and relatively low output per capita. Reason (R): Intensive subsistence agriculture is practiced in the monsoon region with very small land holdings.

Codes:

• 1. Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• 2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• 3. 1. is correct, but (R) is false.
• 4. 1. is false, but (R) is correct.

56. Match the following and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

List-I (Theorist)	List-II (Statement/Concept/Approach)
(a) August Losch	(i) Area-cost curve theory
(b) D. M. Smith	(ii) Profit maximization approach
(c) Allen Pred	(iii) Delivered prices approach
(d) Edger Hoover	(iv) Behavioural approach

Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d)

57. “There must not be another location that may offer a better alternative as a point of origin or as a point of destination.” Which of the Ullman’s principles relate to this statement?

• 1. Complementarity
• 2. Intervening opportunity
• 3. Transferability
• 4. Gravity

58. Given below are two statements. Choose the correct answer using the codes given.

• 1. Destination choice models are an extension of gravity model.
• 2. β (beta) is a parameter of transport friction related to the efficiency of the transport system between two locations.

Codes:

• 1. Only (i) is correct
• 2. Only (ii) is correct
• 3. Both (i) and (ii) are correct
• 4. Neither (i) nor (ii) is correct

59. Consider the following statements:

• 1. According to Hirschman, inter-regional inequality of growth is an inevitable concomitant and condition of growth itself.
• 2. Trickling down effects (Hirschman) is analogous to spread effects as proposed by Gunar Myrdal.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• 1. Only (i)
• 2. Only (ii)
• 3. Both (i) and (ii)
• 4. Neither (i) nor (ii)

60. Who among the four theorists is not associated with Dependency Theory of under development?

• 1. Paul Baron
• 2. Andre Frank
• 3. John Friedman
• 4. Samir Amin

Section 7: Cultural & Political Geography (Q61–Q70)

61. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

List-I (Proponents)	List-II (Theory)
(a) Hirschman	(i) Growth pole
(b) Gunar Myrdal	(ii) Trickle down
(c) John Friedman	(iii) Cumulative causation
(d) F. Perroux	(iv) Core-periphery

Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d)

62. Choose the correct option from the codes given:

• 1. The term cultural ecology was first used by American geographer Carl Saur.
• 2. Cultural ecology is the study of how people’s culture is an adaptation of their surrounding environment.

Codes:

• 1. 1. is true and (ii) is false
• 2. 1. is false and (ii) is true
• 3. Both (i) and (ii) are true
• 4. Both (i) and (ii) are false

63. Which of the following statements is/are true about Cultural convergence?

• 1. Occurs due to geographical seclusion.
• 2. Refers to the process by which different cultures adopt similar characteristics, ideas or practices.
• 3. Promotes cultural diversity.
• 4. Can result in rise of transnationalism.

Codes:

• 1. 2. and (iv)
• 2. 1. and (iii)
• 3. 3. and (iv)
• 4. 2. only

64. Larger clusters of traits organised about some nuclear point of reference is known as

• 1. Culture area
• 2. Assimilation of cultures
• 3. Cultural ecology
• 4. Cultural complex

65. Assertion (A): Muslims of India display high degree of ethnic and cultural diversity. Reason (R): Muslim masses were largely derived from local ethnic groups, both Hindus and Buddhists and carried with them distinctive ethnic and cultural characteristics even after conversion.

Codes:

• 1. Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• 2. Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• 3. 1. is correct, but (R) is not correct.
• 4. 1. is not correct, but (R) is correct.

66. Which of the following is not included in Dravidian family of languages?

• 1. Malto
• 2. Gangte
• 3. Gondi
• 4. Tulu

67. Which one of the following gives the economic reality rather than mental image?

• 1. The image of a city
• 2. Social area of a city
• 3. Command area of a city
• 4. The soft city

68. Match List-I with List-II and find the correct option from the codes given below:

List-I (Communities)	List-II (Area of concentration)
(a) Buddhists	(i) Naga hills
(b) Monkhmer speakers	(ii) Sikkim
(c) Konyak tribe	(iii) Meghalaya Plateau
(d) Nayar Caste	(iv) Malabar coast

Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d)

69. Assertion (A): Voting behaviour in India is influenced by the factor of caste. Reason (R): Caste system in India is a regional specificity.

Codes:

• 1. Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• 2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• 3. 1. is true, but (R) is false.
• 4. 1. is false, but (R) is true.

70. Which of the following statement(s) is/are attributed to Mackinder?

• 1. Rimland is far superior spatial unit than heartland.
• 2. Geography is coercive force which determines the evolution of geopolitics.
• 3. Who controls the rimland rules Eurasia; who rules Eurasia controls destinies of the world.
• 4. There is a historical conflict between the land power and sea power.

Codes:

• 1. (i), (iii) and (iv)
• 2. 2. and (iii)
• 3. 2. and (iv)
• 4. 3. only

Section 8: Geographical Thought & Philosophy (Q71–Q80)

71. The world map prepared by Hecataeus was based on the map of

• 1. Herodotus
• 2. Anaximander
• 3. Ptolemy
• 4. Eratosthenes

72. Who among the following described geography as chorography?

• 1. Varenius
• 2. Humboldt
• 3. Hettner
• 4. Kant

73. Which one of the following is the correct match from the following list?

List-I	List-II
(a) Tableau Da La Geographie da la France	(i) E. C. Sample
(b) Locational Analysis in Human Geography	(ii) Griffith Taylor
(c) American History in its geographic condition	(iii) La Blache
(d) Migration Zone Theory	(iv) Richard Chorley

Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d)

74. Who among the following geographers had shown that the Greek division of the world into five climatic zones (two cold, two temperate and one torrid) did not correspond to reality?

• 1. Al Muqaddasi
• 2. Ibn Khaldun
• 3. Al Idrisi
• 4. Marco Polo

75. Which of the following statements about Humboldt is correct?

• 1. He wrote regional accounts of Mexico and Cuba.
• 2. He was a teleologist.
• 3. His works are highly deterministic.
• 4. He wrote a book named Erdkunde.

76. Which of the following relating to geography books and author names are correct?

• 1. Peter Haggett authored the book on ‘Geography: A Global Synthesis’
• 2. R. J. Johnston wrote the book on ‘Geography and Geographers’
• 3. David M. Smith wrote the book on ‘Social Justice and the City’
• 4. David Harvey authored the book on ‘The Urban Experience’

Codes:

• 1. 1. and (ii)
• 2. 2. and (iii)
• 3. (i), (ii) and (iv)
• 4. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

77. Who proposed the concept of ‘Living Space’ in geography?

• 1. Carl O’ Sauer
• 2. Friedrich Ratzel
• 3. David Harvey
• 4. David M. Smith

78. Assertion (A): Sex is the biological category and gender is the social construct. Reason (R): More aggressive nature of men and caring nature of women are not natural characteristics but socially constructed.

Codes:

• 1. Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• 2. Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• 3. 1. is correct but (R) is wrong.
• 4. 1. is wrong but (R) is correct.

79. Match List-I (Proponents) with List-II (Concept) and choose the correct match:

List-I	List-II
(a) R. E. Park	(i) Urban Ecology
(b) J. Q. Stewart	(ii) Rank-Size Rule
(c) B. Berry	(iii) The Scope of cartography
(d) A. H. Robinson	(iv) Social Physics

Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d)

80. Which of the following is not an influence of Darwinism in geography?

• 1. Concept of change through time or evolution.
• 2. Concept of humanity as part of a living ecological organism.
• 3. Concept of anarchism.
• 4. Concept of struggle and selection.

Section 9: Cartography, Statistics & Remote Sensing (Q81–Q90)

81. Which of the following are orthomorphic projections?

• 1. Polar Zenithal Stereographic Projection
• 2. Cylindrical Equal Area Projection
• 3. Mercator’s Projection
• 4. Simple Conical Projection with one standard parallel

Codes:

• 1. 1. and (ii)
• 2. 2. and (iii)
• 3. 3. and (iv)
• 4. 1. and (iii)

82. It was observed in a mature sal forest in Jharkhand that the heights of the mature trees (y) are almost same with the increasing distance from the core area of the forest (x). Now, the correlation coefficient between x and y will be

• 1. Low positive
• 2. Low negative
• 3. Moderate positive or negative
• 4. Close to zero (0).

83. The appropriate sampling for differential concentration of spatial data in a region is

• 1. Hierarchical sampling
• 2. Cluster sampling
• 3. Snowball sampling
• 4. Judgement sampling

84. What does it indicate when the value of chi-square is found to be 0 (zero)?

• 1. Null hypothesis accepted
• 2. Research hypothesis rejected
• 3. Null hypothesis rejected
• 4. Both (A) and (B) are correct

85. The resampling method for remote sensing data in which the output pixel value is obtained by finding the four closest pixels and then taking a weighted average of these four pixels is

• 1. Nearest Neighbour Resampling
• 2. Bilinear Interpolation
• 3. Bicubic Interpolation
• 4. Cubic Convolution

86. Which of the following is not a component of a GIS?

• 1. Hardware
• 2. Software
• 3. People
• 4. Global Positioning System

87. In remote sensing, which of the following bands is most suitable for detecting vegetation stress?

• 1. Visible Red
• 2. Near Infrared
• 3. Shortwave Infrared
• 4. Thermal Infrared

88. The spatial resolution of IRS-P6 (ResourceSat-1) LISS-III sensor is

• 1. 5.8 m
• 2. 23.5 m
• 3. 56 m
• 4. 188 m

89. Which of the following is the correct formula for Normalised Difference Vegetation Index (NDVI)?

• 1. (NIR – Red) / (NIR + Red)
• 2. (Red – NIR) / (Red + NIR)
• 3. (NIR + Red) / (NIR – Red)
• 4. (NIR × Red) / (NIR + Red)

90. In GIS, which type of data model represents geographic features as points, lines and polygons?

• 1. Raster data model
• 2. TIN data model
• 3. Vector data model
• 4. Grid data model

Section 10: India — Physical & Economic Geography (Q91–Q100)

91. Which of the following rivers in India does not originate from the Himalayas?

• 1. Indus
• 2. Brahmaputra
• 3. Mahanadi
• 4. Sutlej

92. Assertion (A): The Western Ghats act as a barrier to the south-west monsoon. Reason (R): The windward side of the Western Ghats receives heavy rainfall while the leeward side (Deccan Plateau) remains in a rain shadow.

Codes:

• 1. Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• 2. Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• 3. 1. is correct, but (R) is false.
• 4. 1. is false, but (R) is correct.

93. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

• 1. Palghat Gap – Kerala
• 2. Bhorghat – Maharashtra
• 3. Thalghat – Karnataka
• 4. Shencottah Gap – Tamil Nadu

94. The Tropic of Cancer passes through which of the following states in India?

• 1. Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Gujarat
• 2. Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, West Bengal
• 3. Maharashtra, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh
• 4. Gujarat, Rajasthan, Bihar, Jharkhand

95. Which of the following statements about the green revolution in India is/are correct?

• 1. The first phase of green revolution was confined mainly to wheat in Punjab, Haryana and western Uttar Pradesh.
• 2. The second phase of green revolution was extended to rice in states like Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.
• 3. The green revolution contributed significantly to India’s self-sufficiency in food grains.

Codes:

• 1. 1. only
• 2. 1. and (ii)
• 3. 2. and (iii)
• 4. (i), (ii) and (iii)

96. Which of the following industrial regions of India is known as the ‘Ruhr of India’?

• 1. Mumbai-Pune industrial region
• 2. Damodar Valley industrial region
• 3. Bengaluru-Tamil Nadu industrial region
• 4. Ahmedabad-Vadodara industrial region

97. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of National Highways in India in terms of their length from longest to shortest?

• 1. NH 44, NH 27, NH 48, NH 52
• 2. NH 27, NH 44, NH 52, NH 48
• 3. NH 44, NH 48, NH 27, NH 52
• 4. NH 52, NH 27, NH 44, NH 48

98. The concept of ‘Smart City’ in India aims at

• 1. Core infrastructure development
• 2. Clean and sustainable environment
• 3. Application of smart solutions
• 4. Giving citizens a decent quality of life

Codes:

• 1. 1. and (ii) only
• 2. (i), (ii) and (iii)
• 3. (ii), (iii) and (iv)
• 4. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

99. Which of the following is the largest bio-geographic zone of India?

• 1. Himalayan zone
• 2. Trans-Himalayan zone
• 3. Deccan Peninsula zone
• 4. Desert zone

100. Which of the following statements about Indian coalfields is/are correct?

• 1. Gondwana coalfields account for more than 98% of India’s total coal reserves.
• 2. Jharia coalfield is the largest coalfield in India.
• 3. Raniganj coalfield is located in West Bengal.

Codes:

• 1. 1. only
• 2. 1. and (iii)
• 3. 2. and (iii)
• 4. (i), (ii) and (iii)

*End of Question Paper

---

2022 Paper

WB SET 2022

Subject Code: 13 | Maximum Marks: 200 | Time: 2 Hours

Instructions for Candidates

1. Write your Roll Number in the space provided on the top of this page as well as on the OMR Sheet provided.
2. At the commencement of the examination, the question booklet will be given to you. In the first 5 (five) minutes, you are requested to open the booklet and verify it.
3. This paper consists of One Hundred (100) multiple-choice type questions. All the questions are compulsory. Each question carries two marks.
4. Each Question has four alternative responses marked: (A) (B) (C) (D). You have to darken the circle on the correct response against each question.
5. There is no negative marking for incorrect answers.

Section 1: Geomorphology (Q1–Q10)

1. Folds, where axial plane is inclined and both limbs of the fold dip in the same direction, are called

• 1. Plunging fold
• 2. Asymmetrical fold
• 3. Overturned fold
• 4. Recumbent fold

2. Which among the following is not a hotspot?

• 1. Easter Island
• 2. Tristan da Cunha Island
• 3. Réunion Island
• 4. Cocos Island

3. Conservative plate boundaries are located

• 1. along ocean-floor fracture zones
• 2. between two destructive plate boundaries
• 3. between two constructive plate boundaries
• 4. along continental faults like San Andreas

4. The Wilson cycle is a model that describes

• 1. the mountain building phases
• 2. the cyclic isostatic adjustments
• 3. the stages of opening and closing of ocean basins
• 4. the stages of formation and destruction of plates

5. The following two lists show the factors and geomorphic processes. Match the factors with corresponding processes they control.

**List-I (Factors)*

• 1. Topographic Gradient
• 2. Distance from water divide
• 3. Geomorphic Threshold
• 4. Closed system environment

**List-II (Geomorphic Processes)*

• 1. Toposequence
• 2. Movement of water and soil
• 3. Ice crystal growth stress
• 4. Catastrophic events

Select the correct option:

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
(A)	(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)
(B)	(iii)	(iv)	(i)	(ii)
(C)	(i)	(iii)	(iv)	(ii)
(D)	(ii)	(i)	(iv)	(iii)

6. ‘Exfoliation dome’ is developed mainly due to

• 1. pressure release stress resulting from denudation
• 2. stress out of superincumbent pressure
• 3. thermal gradient stress
• 4. salt-crystal growth stress

7. In a river terrace, a continuous stratum of pebbles within layers of sands usually indicates that at the time of its deposition

• 1. landslide occurred from sideslopes
• 2. the river was moving fast
• 3. the river was accelerating
• 4. sudden uplift of the riverbed or floodplain occurred

8. Assertion (A): Sinuosity of an alluvial river decreases if slope increases due to tectonic movement. Reason (R): Channel slope usually increases downstream of an uplifting anticlinal axis.

• 1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• 2. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• 3. 1. is true but (R) is false.
• 4. 1. is false but (R) is true.

9. Assertion (A): Rate of erosion is less in the old stage of normal cycle of erosion. Reason (R): Entropy is maximised on the peneplain.

• 1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• 2. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• 3. 1. is correct but (R) is not correct.
• 4. 1. is not correct but (R) is correct.

10. Which of the following is a product of two phases of erosion?

• 1. Peneplain
• 2. Panplain
• 3. Etch-surface
• 4. Exhumed surface

Section 2: Climatology & Atmosphere (Q11–Q20)

11. Air travel from London to New York involves longer time than return journey because of

• 1. Earth’s rotation in anticlockwise direction
• 2. Coriolis force
• 3. SW Westerly wind
• 4. Upper air jet stream

12. Isobars at 4 mb interval are drawn for an area starting at 992 mb. Ground distance between these isobars starting from 992 mb are — 35 km, 28 km, 22 km, 18 km, 24 km, 30 km, 38 km. Between which two isobars will pressure gradient be the maximum?

• 1. 1016 – 1020 mb
• 2. 1004 – 1008 mb
• 3. 1012 – 1016 mb
• 4. 1016 – 1020 mb

13. Cloudburst is defined by IMD as rainfall of

• 1. ≥ 50 cm / hour
• 2. ≥ 10 cm / hour
• 3. ≥ 5 cm / minute
• 4. ≥ 2 cm / minute

14. ‘ENSO’ is a periodic fluctuation of

• 1. 1 – 6 years
• 2. 2 – 7 years
• 3. 3 – 8 years
• 4. 4 – 9 years

15. Dish-pan experiment relates to the formation of

• 1. Polar vortex
• 2. ENSO
• 3. Rossby waves
• 4. Easterly jet streams

16. Following lists show some climatic phenomena and associated features. Find the correct match.

**List-I (Climatic phenomena)*

• 1. ENSO Events
• 2. Thunderstorm
• 3. Frontal instability
• 4. Atmospheric stability

**List-II (Associated Features)*

• 1. Equatorial region
• 2. Baroclinic condition
• 3. Walker cell
• 4. Barotropic condition

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
(A)	(i)	(ii)	(iv)	(iii)
(B)	(iv)	(iii)	(i)	(ii)
(C)	(iii)	(i)	(ii)	(iv)
(D)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)	(i)

17. Assertion (A): Eye of a cyclone has low pressure in spite of descending wind. Reason (R): Descending wind is warmed up by adiabatic warming.

• 1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• 2. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• 3. 1. is correct but (R) is false.
• 4. 1. is not correct but (R) is correct.

18. Indian Ocean Dipole refers to (i) ________ surface temperature anomaly and affects (ii) ________ of countries that surround Indian Ocean Basin. *(a) Sea, (b) Land, (c) Canopy, (d) Ice cover, (e) Rainfall, (f) Vegetation

• 1. 1. — (b), (ii) — (e)
• 2. 1. — (c), (ii) — (f)
• 3. 1. — (a), (ii) — (d)
• 4. 1. — (a), (ii) — (e)

19. Which of the following is not considered as evidence in establishing climate change?

• 1. Ancient ice cores
• 2. Tree ring dating
• 3. Lacustrine varves
• 4. Radioactive isotope dating

20. Rainfall distribution at global-scale in the recent decades is altered due to

• 1. alteration of Hadley cell of general wind circulation
• 2. alteration of Ferrel’s cell of general wind circulation
• 3. alteration of Polar cell of general wind circulation
• 4. alteration of entire global circulation patterns

Section 3: Oceanography (Q21–Q30)

21. Relief difference between two sides of fracture zones of ocean floors is best explained by

• 1. Pratt’s theory of isostasy.
• 2. Airy’s theory of isostasy.
• 3. Transform faults.
• 4. Mantle inhomogeneity below the oceanic crust.

22. Some of European coasts record sea-level fall. It is because of

• 1. upliftment of coastal landmass due to isostatic rebound resulting from deglaciation
• 2. tectonic subsidence of sea floor
• 3. expansion of ocean basin
• 4. upliftment of coastal land along convergent plate margin

23. In oceans, CaCO₃ compensation depth relates to

• 1. Death rate of marine macro-fauna
• 2. Amount of carbonic acid present in sea water
• 3. ‘T – S’ gradient of water masses
• 4. Water depth of > 2,000 m

24. Assertion (A): Two samples of ocean water can have the same density at different combinations of temperature and salinity. Reason (R): Temperature and salinity of ocean water varies with depth.

• 1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• 2. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• 3. 1. is correct but (R) is false.
• 4. 1. is false but (R) is correct.

25. Thermohaline circulation of ocean water is driven by which of the following factors?

1. Heat
2. Wind
3. Rainwater
4. Density

• 1. 1. and (3)
• 2. 1. and (4)
• 3. 2. and (3)
• 4. 3. and (4)

26. The positions inside the ocean, which experience no fluctuation of water level due to tide, are known as

• 1. Amphidromic points
• 2. Co-tidal points
• 3. Diurnal tidal locations
• 4. Semi-diurnal tidal locations

27. In an estuary, tidal wavelength is primarily determined by the estuary’s

• 1. Length
• 2. Average width
• 3. Average depth
• 4. Shape

28. Which of the following changes are observed as a wave approaches a coast?

• 1. Both wave-length and wave-period reduce.
• 2. Both wave-velocity and wave-height increase.
• 3. Wave-velocity reduces and wave-height increases.
• 4. Wave-length increases and wave-height reduces.

29. Which of the following two statements are true for a tsunami?

1. It involves movement of water from surface to sea-floor.
2. Shoaling effect can greatly increase wave-heights closer to coast.
3. In the open ocean tsunami waves reach greater heights.
4. Speed of tsunami is controlled by wind velocity.

• 1. 1. and (3)
• 2. 2. and (4)
• 3. 1. and (2)
• 4. 3. and (4)

30. Rip-cell circulations along the coasts are developed

• 1. dominantly by long-shore current
• 2. dominantly by shore-normal current
• 3. by the combination of shore-normal and long-shore currents
• 4. by the incident wave propagation

Section 4: Biogeography & Environment (Q31–Q40)

31. The ratio between the energy flow at different trophic levels along the food chain, when expressed as percentage is called

• 1. Ecological index
• 2. Relative ratio of energy flow
• 3. Energy flow efficiency
• 4. Ecological efficiency

32. Which type of structure and function of living system is maintained by its chemical, physical and organic activities?

• 1. Heterostatic
• 2. Homeostatic
• 3. Ecostatic
• 4. Biostatic

33. Plants growing in marshes are called

• 1. Halophytes
• 2. Helophytes
• 3. Heliophytes
• 4. Hemophytes

34. Sustenance of ecosystem with abundance of marine life in apparently nutrient-free and clear water of the coral reefs is known as

• 1. Zooxanthellae Effect
• 2. Coral Flourish
• 3. Darwin’s Paradox
• 4. Cousteau’s Principle

35. Consider the following statements regarding flow of matter and choose the correct option:

1. Nutrient cycles closely parallel the routes of energy flow within the biotic components.
2. The movement of materials is cyclic.
3. The Nutrient cycle is conservative.

• 1. Only (1) is correct.
• 2. Only (2) is correct.
• 3. 2. and (3) are correct.
• 4. (1), (2) and (3) are correct.

36. Principles of managing water and air pollution rest on

• 1. Concentration and Separation
• 2. Dilution and Separation
• 3. Dilution and Concentration
• 4. Dilution, Washing and Distribution

37. Following lists show the techniques and types of waste-water treatment. Choose the correct match.

**List-I (Types of Treatment)*

• 1. Primary treatment
• 2. Secondary treatment
• 3. Tertiary treatment

**List-II (Technique)*

• 1. Comminutor
• 2. Activated sludge
• 3. Disinfection

	(a)	(b)	(c)
(A)	(ii)	(iii)	(i)
(B)	(i)	(ii)	(iii)
(C)	(iii)	(ii)	(i)
(D)	(i)	(iii)	(ii)

38. Presence of Arsenic traces in human body is an example of

• 1. Bio-filtration
• 2. Bio-precipitation
• 3. Bio-remediation
• 4. Bio-accumulation

39. Which of the following is not an enacted act for legal and regulatory framework in India?

• 1. Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972
• 2. Biological Diversity Act, 2002
• 3. Forest (Clearance) Act, 1980
• 4. National Green Tribunal Act, 2010

40. In COP-26, India has pledged to achieve Net Zero by

• 1. 2040
• 2. 2050
• 3. 2060
• 4. 2070

Section 5: Population & Settlement Geography (Q41–Q50)

41. Assertion (A): World population growth rate was extremely slow in the pre-historic period. Reason (R): It took over two million years of human pre-history and history for the human population to reach one billion.

• 1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• 2. Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• 3. 1. is true, but (R) is false.
• 4. 1. is false, but (R) is correct.

42. Identify the incorrect one from the following statements regarding Demographic Transition:

• 1. Both birth and death rates are balanced in high stationary and low stationary stages.
• 2. In the early expansion stage, the birth and death rates tend to converge as birth rates fall relative to death rates.
• 3. Low population growth characterises both high stationary and low stationary stage.
• 4. The gap between birth and death rates narrows down in the late expanding stage.

43. Which of the following statements are correct?

• 1. Population census was carried out by the Roman empire to count men of military age and for tax collection.
• 2. Census carried out at an individual’s current address is called ‘de-jure’ method of census data collection.
• 3. Census carried out at person’s permanent address is called ‘de-facto’ method of census.
• 4. First ever population census in India was held in the year 1872.
• 1. 1. and (b)
• 2. 2. and (c)
• 3. 3. and (d)
• 4. 1. and (d)

44. In which of the following indices does the average number of daughters replace a given cohort of women (their mothers)?

• 1. Net Reproduction Rate
• 2. Net Fertility Rate
• 3. Gross Reproduction Rate
• 4. Total Fertility Rate

45. Rural wage equals rural marginal product of labour while urban wage is exogenously determined — This is a key proposition made by

• 1. Ernst George Ravenstein
• 2. Everett Lee
• 3. Arthur Lewis
• 4. J. R. Harris and M. Todaro

46. Which of the following statements made on the meaning of rural-urban fringe is correct?

• 1. A zone of transition between the continuously built-up urban and sub-urban areas of a city and its rural hinterland.
• 2. A narrow sub-urban zone between a city and the rural areas it serves.
• 3. A concentric area between the city and its suburbs.
• 4. A part of the rural-urban continuum where certain elements of urban structure are found to occur.

47. Match the following and choose the correct answer from the codes given below.

**List-I (Pattern of Settlement)*

• 1. Star-shaped
• 2. Nucleated
• 3. Linear
• 4. Dispersed

**List-II (Associated Factor)*

• 1. Intensive cropping
• 2. Convergence of a number of roads
• 3. Hilly topography
• 4. Road, River, Canal etc.

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
(A)	(ii)	(i)	(iv)	(iii)
(B)	(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)
(C)	(iv)	(ii)	(i)	(iii)
(D)	(iii)	(i)	(iv)	(ii)

48. Read the following statements and choose the correct answer:

1. Land use change is a process by which the character of land is modified by human activities.
2. Land use change may affect the ecological balance of the concerned area.
3. Land use change may even lead to atmospheric temperature change.

• 1. Only 3 is correct
• 2. 1 and 3 are correct
• 3. Only 1 is correct
• 4. All the three (1–3) are correct

49. Which of the following are the main characteristics of a ‘Global City’?

1. Major international airport
2. Active influence on and participation in international events
3. Trans-territorial in character
4. A minimum population working in the IT sector

• 1. 1 and 3
• 2. 2 and 4
• 3. 1, 2 and 3
• 4. 1 and 4

50. Assertion (A): Land use changes in rural-urban fringe are most prominent. Reason (R): Land acquisition is very easy in the rural-urban fringe.

• 1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• 2. Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not always the correct explanation of (A).
• 3. 1. is true, but (R) is false.
• 4. 1. is false, but (R) is correct.

Section 6: Economic Geography & Regional Development (Q51–Q60)

51. The following are statements about the world’s energy crisis during 1970’s:

1. The OPEC raised the price of oil from $1.5 to $7 per barrel in 1973.
2. The price shot-up to $24 by 1979.
3. India experienced complete disruption of imports, but no inflation.
4. The Iranian Revolution in 1979 added to the disruption of oil supplies.

Select the correct answer:

• 1. 1, 2 and 4
• 2. 2, 3 and 4
• 3. 1 and 4
• 4. 1, 2 and 3

52. The quaternary sector of the economy is NOT characterised by

• 1. improvements of manufacturing processes by the entrepreneurs
• 2. encouraging constant innovations in technology
• 3. expansion of the knowledge economy
• 4. expansion of ‘blue-collar’ job opportunities

53. Which one of the following statements concerning Von Thunen’s model is correct?

• 1. The agricultural location model propounded by Von Thunen was developed around the concept of rent.
• 2. Von Thunen’s model was based only on transport cost of the products from the source to the market.
• 3. Spatial variation in the level of soil fertility was the main concern of the Von Thunen’s model.
• 4. On the basis of distance from the market, Von Thunen recognised eight concentric zones of agricultural land use.

54. Which of the following relations for measuring Crop Diversification (CD) was devised by Bhatia?

• 1. CD = 1 − Σx² / (Σx)²
• 2. CD = Total cropped area under ‘x’ crops / Number of ‘x’ crops
• 3. CD = Percentage of total harvested area under ‘n’ crops / Number of ‘n’ crops
• 4. CD = Gross cropped area / Number of crops cultivated

55. Which of the following features of globalisation have an adverse effect upon less-developed countries?

• 1. Mobility of capital
• 2. Greater mobility of labour
• 3. Free trade agreements
• 4. Re-cycling or re-using to reduce environmental impacts

56. The Four Asian Tigers experiencing rapid economic growth since the 1960’s as industrial regions are

• 1. Singapore, Hong Kong, South Korea, Taiwan
• 2. China, Hong Kong, Taiwan, Singapore
• 3. China, Singapore, Hong Kong, Japan
• 4. Singapore, Hong Kong, North Korea, Taiwan

57. The Gravity Model is used for travel demand forecasting and does NOT imply —

• 1. Trips produced at an origin are directly proportional to the total trip production at the origin.
• 2. As travel time increases, travellers are increasingly less likely to make those trips.
• 3. The ‘friction factor’ represents reluctance of persons to make certain trips.
• 4. It is assumed that there is no balance between productions and attractions.

58. Following are some characteristics of regional economic integration. Select the correct option:

1. It has reduced income gaps between countries through convergence.
2. It has increased inequality within countries.
3. Different forms of connectivity favoured all countries equally.
4. Small, isolated and vulnerable regions are in adverse position in it.

• 1. 1, 2 and 4
• 2. 2 and 4
• 3. 1 and 3
• 4. 1, 3 and 4

59. The Gangetic Plain as an agro-climatic region is divided into the following subregions:

1. Upper and Lower Gangetic Basin
2. Lower, Middle, Upper and Trans-Gangetic Plain
3. Lower, Upper and Trans-Gangetic Plain
4. Upper and Trans-Gangetic plain

Select the correct answer:

• 1. 1, 2 and 3
• 2. only 2
• 3. only 3
• 4. 2 and 4

60. Dependency theories seek to explain the distorted character of development in

• 1. Advanced economies
• 2. Colonised regions
• 3. Backward regions
• 4. Regions with a high dependency ratio

Section 7: Cultural & Political Geography (Q61–Q70)

61. Assertion (A): Cultural traits are genetically transmitted from one person to another. Reason (R): Culture is accumulated and transferred from one generation to another through language.

• 1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• 2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• 3. 1. is true, but (R) is false.
• 4. 1. is false, but (R) is true.

62. Development of a new form of cultural trait by the fusion of two or more distinct parental elements results in

• 1. Acculturation
• 2. Assimilation
• 3. Syncretism
• 4. Integration

63. According to the Ministry of Tourism, India, majority of the tourist arrivals for medical purposes are from

• 1. Bangladesh and Nepal
• 2. Bangladesh and Afghanistan
• 3. Pakistan and Sri Lanka
• 4. Pakistan and Myanmar

64. Cultural ecology refers to

• 1. the study of human adaptation to the social and physical environments
• 2. the interpretation of human adaptation to social and economic environments
• 3. the study of human response to the physical and economic environments
• 4. the analysis of human modification of the earth’s landscapes

65. According to Census of India, 2011, in which of the following religious categories, the proportion of scheduled caste population is the highest?

• 1. Buddhism
• 2. Sikhism
• 3. Hinduism
• 4. Christianity

66. Assertion (A): Majority of the tribal population in India is concentrated in areas not having intensive cultivation. Reason (R): Shifting cultivation is practised by the tribal population.

• 1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• 2. Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• 3. 1. is true, but (R) is false.
• 4. 1. is false, but (R) is correct.

67. Which of the following statements are true?

• 1. Scheduled tribe population is negligible in their presence in Ganga valley.
• 2. Religious minorities have greater representation in the population located in the geographical periphery of India.
• 3. All the tribal communities in North-East India speak one or other languages belonging to Sino-Tibetan family.
• 4. Kerala has the highest concentration of scheduled castes in its population.
• 1. 1. and (b) are correct
• 2. 2. and (c) are correct
• 3. 3. and (d) are correct
• 4. only (a) is correct

68. A zone of varying width separating states in which neither state exercises political control is a

• 1. Boundary
• 2. Buffer
• 3. Frontier
• 4. Line of Actual Control

69. ___________ boundaries result when a smaller state is absorbed by a larger one or when former boundaries between states are abandoned and redrawn.

• 1. Superimposed
• 2. Subsequent
• 3. Antecedent
• 4. Relict

70. The Montreal Protocol was primarily established to

• 1. Protect bio-diversity
• 2. Protect ozone layer
• 3. Protect wetlands
• 4. Facilitate carbon trade

Section 8: Geographical Thought & Philosophy (Q71–Q80)

71. Read the following statements and find out which of these are correct:

• 1. Herodotus declared earth as a flat disc.
• 2. Main contribution in the field of historical and mathematical geography came from the Romans.
• 3. Eratosthenes was the first to calculate the tilt of the earth’s axis.
• 4. Ptolemy accurately assumed the circumference of the earth which helped sailors reaching Asia by sailing West from Europe.
• 1. 1. and (c) are correct
• 2. 2. and (d) are correct
• 3. 3. and (d) are correct
• 4. Only (a) is correct

72. Name the Arab geographer who used trigonometry to calculate the Earth’s radius by measuring the height of a hill.

• 1. Al Biruni
• 2. Al Idrisi
• 3. Al Masudi
• 4. Ibn Batuta

73. The organisation that was set up in 1956 for publishing thematic maps of India was called

• 1. Thematic Mapping Association of India
• 2. National Atlas Organisation
• 3. National Thematic Mapping Organisation
• 4. National Atlas and Thematic Mapping Organisation

74. Match the following:

**List-I (Author)*

• 1. Immanuel Kant
• 2. Richard Hartshorne
• 3. Richard Kuhn
• 4. Yi-Fu Tuan

**List-II (Book)*

• 1. Nature of Geography
• 2. Physische Geographie
• 3. Topophilia: A study of Environmental Perception, Attitude and Values
• 4. The Structure of Scientific Revolution

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
(A)	ii	i	iv	iii
(B)	iii	i	iv	ii
(C)	iv	ii	iii	i
(D)	i	iv	ii	iii

75. Who amongst the following is NOT a feminist geographer?

• 1. Marjorie Sweeting
• 2. Doreen Massey
• 3. Susan Manson
• 4. Gillian Rose

76. Which of the following geographic traditions concentrates on the study of phenomena from the perspectives of geometric elements like — point, line and area?

• 1. Area-study tradition
• 2. Earth-science tradition
• 3. Spatial analysis tradition
• 4. Man-land tradition

77. The following two lists state the concepts in geography and one of the most important contributors to the development of that concept. Match the two lists:

**List-I (Concept)*

• 1. Humanistic Geography
• 2. Social space
• 3. Post-Modernism
• 4. Radicalism in Geography

**List-II (Contributor)*

• 1. Michael Foucault
• 2. Chombart de Lauwe
• 3. Richard Peet
• 4. Yi-fu Tuan

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
(A)	(ii)	(iii)	(i)	(iv)
(B)	(iii)	(ii)	(iv)	(i)
(C)	(ii)	(i)	(iii)	(iv)
(D)	(iv)	(ii)	(i)	(iii)

78. Which of the following represents a model constructed through inductive approach on the basis of observed regularities?

• 1. Priori Model
• 2. Posteriori Model
• 3. Normative Model
• 4. Predictive Model

79. Spatiality, volatility and pluralism are the basic tenets of

• 1. Post structuralism
• 2. Post modernism
• 3. Structuralism
• 4. Modernism

80. Following lists show the philosophies and associated guiding principles. Match them:

**List-I (Philosophies)*

• 1. Postmodernism
• 2. Modernism
• 3. Structuralism
• 4. Post-structuralism

**List-II (Principles)*

• 1. Code of production
• 2. Simultaneity
• 3. Sequential analysis
• 4. Mode of production

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
(A)	(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)
(B)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)	(i)
(C)	(iii)	(iv)	(i)	(ii)
(D)	(iii)	(i)	(ii)	(iv)

Section 9: Remote Sensing, GIS & Statistics (Q81–Q90)

81. Which of the following is NOT a derivative of analysis using DEM?

• 1. Zonal Statistics
• 2. Watershed delineation
• 3. Topographic Position Index
• 4. Slope

82. Which statistical procedure uses an orthogonal transformation that converts a set of correlated variables to a set of uncorrelated variables?

• 1. Gaussian transformation
• 2. Moran’s I
• 3. Fast Fourier Transformation
• 4. Principal Component Analysis

83. Flow map is NOT suitable for representing which of the following data?

• 1. Number of vehicles per hour.
• 2. Volume of oil transported through pipeline per day.
• 3. Number of persons gathering in market per week.
• 4. Volume of water discharged through river segments per annum.

84. Assertion (A): ANOVA is preferred over ‘t’ test where comparison between two or more population means are involved. Reason (R): Probability of committing Type I error accumulates when numbers of comparisons in ‘t’ test increases.

• 1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• 2. Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• 3. 1. is correct, but (R) is not correct.
• 4. 1. is not correct, but (R) is correct.

85. Among the following values of hypsometric integral, which one denotes minimum erosion of a drainage basin area?

• 1. 0.02
• 2. 0.48
• 3. 0.51
• 4. 0.92

86. The Semi-interquartile range is preferred to the standard deviation as a measure of dispersion, when

• 1. the distribution is standardised
• 2. the range is small
• 3. the sample size is small
• 4. the distribution is highly skewed

87. One nautical mile measures the arc-length distance along the great-circle against which of the following angular distances at the centre of earth?

• 1. 1”
• 2. 1’
• 3. 3’
• 4. 3”

88. In a standard FCC of winter season, laterite duricrusts are represented in

• 1. Yellow
• 2. Green
• 3. Grey
• 4. Brown

89. In which of the spatial operators will the output layer have more area than the individual input layers?

• 1. Intersection
• 2. Union
• 3. Identity
• 4. Clip

90. Which one of the following is a widely used and effective machine learning algorithm based on the idea of bagging?

• 1. Regression
• 2. Classification
• 3. Decision tree
• 4. Random forest

Section 10: India — Physical & Economic Geography (Q91–Q100)

91. The largest producer of chromite in India is

• 1. Karnataka
• 2. Odisha
• 3. Chattisgarh
• 4. Madhya Pradesh

92. Mawsynram of Meghalaya, the wettest place of India, typically gets average annual rainfall of

• 1. 400–600 cm
• 2. 600–800 cm
• 3. 800–1,000 cm

• 4. 1,000 cm

93. Match the river basins with percent of India’s land area drained by them:

**River basins*

• 1. Kaveri
• 2. Pennar
• 3. Subarnarekha
• 4. Tapi

**Percent of India’s land area drained*

• 1. 0.9
• 2. 1.7
• 3. 2.0
• 4. 2.5
• 22. 4.1

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
(A)	(iv)	(iii)	(i)	(ii)
(B)	(iv)	(ii)	(i)	(iii)
(C)	(v)	(i)	(ii)	(iii)
(D)	(ii)	(i)	(iv)	(iii)

94. Which of the following statements about Jharkhand is correct?

• 1. It has the largest share of coal production in India.
• 2. It has the largest share of iron ore production in India.
• 3. It is the leading producer of mica in India.
• 4. It has the largest share of bauxite production in India.

95. Which of the following biosphere reserves in India is a part of UNESCO’s world network of biosphere reserves?

• 1. Simlipal
• 2. Achanakmar-Amarkantak
• 3. Seshachalam
• 4. Panna

96. Which one of the following is not included in the ‘North-Eastern Region’ of India as defined by the Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region (DoNER)?

• 1. Sikkim
• 2. West Bengal
• 3. Assam
• 4. Manipur

97. Which of the following is the correct rank order (highest to lowest) of Indian states in terms of area?

• 1. Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh
• 2. Rajasthan, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh
• 3. Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh
• 4. Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra

98. Assertion (A): The winter rainfall in Tamil Nadu coast is mostly caused by the North-East Monsoon. Reason (R): Tamil Nadu coast lies on the leeward side of the South-West Monsoon.

• 1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• 2. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• 3. 1. is correct but (R) is not correct.
• 4. 1. is not correct but (R) is correct.

99. Consider the following statements about the National Waterways (NW) of India:

1. NW-1 covers Allahabad–Haldia stretch of the Ganga-Bhagirathi-Hooghly river.
2. NW-2 covers Sadiya–Dhubri stretch of the Brahmaputra river.
3. NW-3 covers Kollam–Kottapuram stretch in Kerala.
4. NW-4 covers Kakinada–Puducherry stretch of canals and the Krishna and Godavari rivers.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• 1. 1 and 2
• 2. 1, 2 and 3
• 3. 2, 3 and 4
• 4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

100. The Palghat Gap in the Western Ghats connects

• 1. Kerala and Tamil Nadu
• 2. Goa and Karnataka
• 3. Karnataka and Tamil Nadu
• 4. Kerala and Karnataka

*— End of Question Paper —

---

2021 Paper

WB SET 2021

Subject Code: 13 | Maximum Marks: 200 | Time: 2 Hours

Instructions for Candidates

1. Write your Roll Number in the space provided on the top of this page as well as on the OMR Sheet provided.
2. This paper consists of One Hundred (100) multiple-choice type questions. All the questions are compulsory. Each question carries two marks.
3. Each Question has four alternative responses marked: (A) (B) (C) (D). You have to darken the circle on the correct response against each question.
4. There is no negative marking for incorrect answers.

Section 1: Economic Geography & Transport (Q1–Q2)

1. Which of the following is not among the basic factors in E. L. Ullman’s transport systems model?

• 1. Complimentarity
• 2. Intervening opportunities
• 3. Transferability
• 4. Distance between two points

2. Inclusive growth is the agenda of economic development in the future, but the strategy of inclusive growth does not focus on:

• 1. promotion of ancillary industry in industrial regions
• 2. reduction of poverty among backward castes
• 3. diversification of livelihood for tribal population
• 4. enhancement of educational opportunities

Section 2: India — Environment & Resources (Q3–Q10)

3. According to Visaria and Visaria (1996): Assertion (A): India will face severe crisis of water during 2050. Reason (R): The crisis may easily be managed with the judicious use of water in agricultural and industrial field.

• 1. 1. is true but (R) is not the proper reasoning of (A)
• 2. 1. is true and (R) is the proper reasoning of (A)
• 3. 1. is conditionally true and (R) is the most effective reasoning to the problem of (A)
• 4. Both (A) and (R) are false

4. Name the forest in which teak and sal are the most dominant species:

• 1. Tropical Evergreen Forest
• 2. Tropical Deciduous Forest
• 3. Boreal Forest
• 4. Temperate Forest

5. Which of the following can be considered as a direct impact of global warming?

• 1. Increase in Green House Gases
• 2. Coastal Erosion
• 3. Coral Bleaching
• 4. Volcanic Eruption

6. The following are the possible causes for monsoon delay in India: (1) El Nino, (2) Tibetan anticyclone, (3) Presence of Westerly Jet Stream south of the Himalaya during summer, (4) Shifting of ITCZ

• 1. 1 and 3 are true
• 2. 2 and 4 are true
• 3. 1, 2 and 3 are true
• 4. 1 and 4 are true

7. Assertion (A): Flood is the most destructive of natural hazards in the Ganga-Brahmaputra plains. Reason (R): Due to population pressure, more people tend to live in flood prone areas.

• 1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
• 2. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
• 3. 1. is true but (R) is false
• 4. 1. is false but (R) is correct

8. Plants behaving as xerophyte at one season and as hydrophyte at another are known as:

• 1. Epiphytes
• 2. Saprophytes
• 3. Tropophytes
• 4. Heliotropophytes

9. Although hydroelectric power has led to economic progress around the world, it has created serious ecologic problems. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

• 1. To produce hydroelectric power, large areas of forest and agricultural lands are submerged.
• 2. The silting of the reservoirs reduces the life of the hydroelectric power installations.
• 3. The resettlement of displaced persons is generally not a serious issue as there are many options.
• 4. The use of rivers for navigation and fisheries becomes difficult once the water is dammed to generate electricity.

10. UNCLOS stands for:

• 1. United Nations Climate Law over Sea
• 2. United Nations Convention on Law and Order of Sea
• 3. United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea
• 4. United Nations Convention on the Land over the Sea

Section 3: Biogeography & Ecology (Q11–Q15)

11. The process of a primary autotrophic succession is completed in which of the following correct sequential steps?

• 1. Invasion → Nudation → Reaction → Competition → Stabilisation
• 2. Nudation → Invasion → Competition → Reaction → Stabilisation
• 3. Competition → Reaction → Invasion → Stabilisation → Nudation
• 4. Reaction → Invasion → Nudation → Competition → Stabilisation

12. The following two lists state the temperature conditions and associated vegetation classes. Match the two lists.

**List-I (Temperature)*

• 1. Megatherms
• 2. Mesotherms
• 3. Microtherms
• 4. Hekistotherms

**List-II (Vegetation Types)*

• 1. Tropical Deciduous
• 2. Tropical Rainforest
• 3. Alpine
• 4. Mixed coniferous

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
(A)	(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)
(B)	(ii)	(iv)	(i)	(iii)
(C)	(ii)	(i)	(iv)	(iii)
(D)	(iv)	(ii)	(iii)	(i)

13. Shape and spread of statistical data under univariate analysis is better judged through:

• 1. Central Tendency
• 2. Deviation Measures
• 3. Hypothesis Testing
• 4. Skewness and Kurtosis

14. Pelagic oozes cover about:

• 1. 30% of the world ocean floor area
• 2. 40% of the world ocean floor area
• 3. 50% of the world ocean floor area
• 4. 60% of the world ocean floor area

15. Maximum crop diversity is conventionally found in which of the following regions?

• 1. Hilly Area
• 2. Plain Area
• 3. Plateau Area
• 4. Peri-urban Area

Section 4: Climatology & Atmosphere (Q16–Q26)

16. In which of the following weather conditions does the negative lapse rate of temperature operate?

• 1. Adiabatic change in temperature
• 2. Adiabatic inversion of temperature
• 3. Surface inversion of temperature
• 4. Isothermal change of temperature

17. ‘Doppler Radar’ is used for the purpose of:

• 1. Extended range weather forecasting
• 2. Medium range weather forecasting
• 3. Long range weather forecasting
• 4. Nowcasting

18. Geographically the most extensive fogs in India during winter are mainly:

• 1. Radiation fogs
• 2. Advective fogs
• 3. Frontal fogs
• 4. Hill fogs

19. The temperature characteristics at a warm occluded front can be described as:

• 1. The air behind the cold front is colder than the cool air it is overtaking.
• 2. The air in front of the cold front is warmer than the cool air overtaking it.
• 3. The air behind the cold front is warmer than the cool air it is overtaking.
• 4. The air in front of the cold front is cooler than the cold air overtaking it.

20. First nuclear energy plant in India was established in:

• 1. Narora
• 2. Tarapur
• 3. Kaiga
• 4. Kalpakkam

21. In order of decreasing area of EEZs, which one of the following sequences is correct?

• 1. USA, France, Russia, Australia
• 2. France, USA, Australia, Russia
• 3. Russia, Australia, USA, France
• 4. USA, Australia, Russia, France

22. Water waves are termed ‘shallow’ when:

• 1. Water depth is less than 1/20th of wavelength
• 2. Water depth is less than 1/10th of wavelength
• 3. Water depth is less than 1/5th of wavelength
• 4. Wave depth is less than 1/4th of wavelength

23. In oceans, the Rule of Constant Proportions relates to:

• 1. Benthic biota
• 2. Tidal propagation in enclosed bays
• 3. Salinity
• 4. Oxygen isotope ratio

24. Potential density of seawater is primarily dependent on:

• 1. Salinity and Temperature
• 2. Depth of water
• 3. Mixing of warm and cold currents at a given locality
• 4. Pressure of air and water columns

25. In an El Niño year, the Western Pacific warm pool moves towards the east and this modifies the:

• 1. Hadley Circulation
• 2. Walker Circulation
• 3. Ferrel Circulation
• 4. Langmuir Circulation

26. At 25°C air is saturated with 20 g of water vapour per kg of air. If the air contains 15 g of water vapour per kg at the same temperature, the relative humidity is:

• 1. 15%
• 2. 30%
• 3. 60%
• 4. 75%

Section 5: Settlement & Urban Geography (Q27–Q30)

27. Which one of the following is the real characteristic of an exurb?

• 1. A low density, low population based settlement at suburbs
• 2. A low density, low population based settlement beyond the suburbs
• 3. A high density, low population based settlement at the outer core of urban unit
• 4. A high density, high population based settlement beyond suburbs

28. Who among the following took the first leadership to spread Quantitative Techniques in Geography outside USA?

• 1. H. McCarty
• 2. T. Hägerstrand
• 3. W. Bunge
• 4. J. Q. Stewart

29. Population potential of an area as an extension of social physics is propounded by:

• 1. R. J. Chorley
• 2. T. Hägerstrand
• 3. B. Berry
• 4. J. Q. Stewart

30. If the basic–non-basic ratio is equal to 1 (one) in an urban unit, it indicates:

• 1. Recession of economy
• 2. Growth of economy
• 3. Stagnation of economy
• 4. High growth of economy

Section 6: Population Geography (Q31–Q35)

31. Which one of the following is a correct match?

Tribal Population (%)	State
(a) High	(i) Odisha
(b) Medium	(ii) Punjab
(c) Low	(iii) West Bengal
(d) Very Low	(iv) Manipur

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
(A)	(iv)	(i)	(ii)	(iii)
(B)	(iv)	(i)	(iii)	(ii)
(C)	(iv)	(ii)	(i)	(iii)
(D)	(iv)	(i)	(ii)	(iii)

32. Zero population growth occurs in a country when:

• 1. births plus immigration equal deaths plus emigration
• 2. births are equal to deaths
• 3. in-migration is equal to out-migration
• 4. in-migration is equal to deaths

33. Which of the following is a marginal sea, in true sense, in the Indian Ocean?

• 1. Red Sea
• 2. Arabian Sea
• 3. Bay of Bengal
• 4. Andaman Sea

34. Who proposed the term ‘Tricontinentalism’ in relation to Post-colonialism?

• 1. Edward Said
• 2. Homi Bhabha
• 3. Gayatri Chakravorty
• 4. Robert Young

35. In his theory of Social Ecology, Kropotkin developed the idea of social interaction within the social groups under the principle of:

• 1. Exploitation
• 2. Competition
• 3. Dominance
• 4. Mutual aid

Section 7: Geographical Thought & Philosophy (Q36–Q45)

36. Assertion (A): Humboldt rejected the idiographic paradigm in favour of establishing the unity of nature. Reason (R): Humboldt considered regions merely as tools to study the unity of diversity and unity of nature at a convenient scale.

• 1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• 2. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• 3. 1. is true but (R) is false.
• 4. 1. is false but (R) is true.

37. What percentage of data of a normal distribution approximately lies between (+) and (−) one standard deviation?

• 1. 66
• 2. 46
• 3. 33
• 4. 23

38. Match the geomorphic features with the geomorphic processes.

Geomorphic Feature	Geomorphic Process
(a) Cockpit	(i) Coastal process
(b) Moulin	(ii) Fluvial process
(c) Runnel	(iii) Glacial process
(d) Talik	(iv) Karstic process
	(v) Periglacial process

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
(A)	(iv)	(iii)	(i)	(v)
(B)	(v)	(i)	(ii)	(iv)
(C)	(iv)	(iii)	(i)	(ii)
(D)	(iv)	(v)	(iii)	(i)

39. Which among the following is not a stage of social development as per Comte’s proposition?

• 1. Theological
• 2. Metaphysical
• 3. Positive
• 4. Postmodern

40. As per Kuhn’s model of disciplinary development, the first ‘Paradigm Phase’ is immediately preceded by which phase?

• 1. Pre-paradigm
• 2. Crisis
• 3. Professionalisation
• 4. Revolution

41. If variability of rainfall is to be measured, which of the following techniques will be used?

• 1. Coefficient of Correlation
• 2. Coefficient of Regression
• 3. Coefficient of Variation
• 4. Coefficient of Multiple Correlation

42. Match List-I with List-II:

**List-I*

• 1. χ² test
• 2. Coefficient of Variation
• 3. t-test
• 4. Rank correlation

**List-II*

• 1. consistency of the variables
• 2. test of significance
• 3. skewed distribution
• 4. sample size less than 30

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
(A)	(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)
(B)	(iv)	(i)	(ii)	(iii)
(C)	(ii)	(iii)	(i)	(iv)
(D)	(ii)	(iv)	(iii)	(i)

43. p-value ≤ 0.05 indicates:

• 1. a strong evidence against null hypothesis
• 2. a weak evidence against null hypothesis
• 3. a strong evidence against alternative hypothesis
• 4. a weak evidence against alternative hypothesis

44. Wider dispersion can be best represented by:

• 1. Standard Deviation
• 2. Fractiles
• 3. Factorial Ecology
• 4. Coefficient of Variation

45. Concept of ‘Locational Triangle’ for the location of industries was introduced by which of the following scholars?

• 1. Lösch
• 2. Palander
• 3. Weber
• 4. Smith

Section 8: Industrial & Economic Geography (Q46–Q47)

46. Match the industries in column-I with their location in column-II:

Column-I	Column-II
(a) Cotton textile	(i) Dhariwal
(b) Woollen textile	(ii) Rishra
(c) Jute textile	(iii) Coimbatore
(d) Silk textile	(iv) Mysore

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
(A)	(i)	(iii)	(iv)	(ii)
(B)	(ii)	(i)	(iii)	(iv)
(C)	(iv)	(ii)	(i)	(iii)
(D)	(iii)	(i)	(ii)	(iv)

47. Which of the following organisations prepares Indian Topographical maps?

• 1. NATMO
• 2. Survey of India
• 3. TTK, Madras
• 4. Ministry of Defence, GOI

Section 9: Geomorphology (Q48–Q64)

48. Select the correctly sequenced landform features in a glaciated valley from higher to lower altitudes.

• 1. Tarn, Paternoster lake, Kettle lake, Moraine-dammed lake
• 2. Tarn, Paternoster lake, Moraine-dammed lake, Kettle lake
• 3. Paternoster lake, Tarn, Moraine-dammed lake, Kettle lake
• 4. Kettle lake, Tarn, Paternoster lake, Moraine-dammed lake

49. Assertion (A): Coasts tend to become sandy to muddy as tidal range changes from micro to macro. Reason (R): In tropical coasts, mangrove vegetation is conducive of deposition of fine sediments.

• 1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation.
• 2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation.
• 3. 1. is true but (R) is false.
• 4. 1. is false but (R) is true.

50. What is the spatial resolution of AWiFS sensor?

• 1. 23.5 m
• 2. 36 m
• 3. 56 m
• 4. 188 m

51. Which among the following DEMs is available free from the Internet and is contributed by India?

• 1. CartoDEM
• 2. SRTM DEM
• 3. ALOS DEM
• 4. ASTER DEM

52. The Universal Transverse Mercator zone number of West Bengal is:

• 1. 43
• 2. 44
• 3. 45
• 4. 46

53. Consider the following statements: ‘Water spout’ is a weather element associated with:

1. A tornado
2. Intense low pressure system similar to a tornado but develops over sea / large water-body.
3. A cumulonimbus cloud-base with whirling cone of dark grey cloud projected downward.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• 1. 1 and 2
• 2. 1 and 3
• 3. 2 and 3
• 4. 1, 2 and 3

54. Consider the following statements — Blocking anticyclone is associated with:

1. Occurrence in both winter and summer months in NW Europe
2. Prolonged cold dry season in Western Europe
3. Frequent depressions with exceptionally fine weather in summer

Which of the statements are correct?

• 1. 1 and 2
• 2. 1 and 3
• 3. 2 and 3
• 4. 1, 2 and 3

55. Assertion (A): ITCZ moves northward during summer in the northern hemisphere. Reason (R): Low pressure system is developed over the continental landmass.

• 1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• 2. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• 3. 1. is true but (R) is false.
• 4. 1. is false but (R) is true.

56. Dendrochronology is useful to study the paleoclimatic trends of which of the following epochs?

• 1. Miocene
• 2. Pliocene
• 3. Pleistocene
• 4. Holocene

57. Among the following values of hypsometric integral, which one denotes maximum erosion of a drainage basin area down to its base level?

• 1. 0.18
• 2. 0.44
• 3. 0.51
• 4. 0.91

58. Tertiary period had five epochs. Select the correct order in which these epochs appear in the Geological time scale from ancient to recent.

• 1. Paleocene – Oligocene – Miocene – Eocene – Pliocene
• 2. Paleocene – Pliocene – Oligocene – Miocene – Eocene
• 3. Paleocene – Eocene – Oligocene – Miocene – Pliocene
• 4. Oligocene – Paleocene – Miocene – Eocene – Pliocene

59. Assertion (A): In arid and semi-arid region sheet flood is an important land forming process. Reason (R): Arid and semi-arid region experience high intensity short duration rainfall.

• 1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• 2. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• 3. 1. is true but (R) is false.
• 4. 1. is false but (R) is true.

60. Formation of potholes in river beds is an example of:

• 1. Hydration
• 2. Erosion
• 3. Plucking
• 4. Corrasion

61. Which among the following features is a product of volcanic eruption?

• 1. Lapilli
• 2. Lapiés
• 3. Laccolith
• 4. Ladang

62. Which of the following statements best describes the movement along a normal fault?

• 1. Hanging wall moves downward relative to the foot wall.
• 2. Hanging wall moves horizontal relative to the foot wall.
• 3. Hanging wall moves angular relative to the foot wall.
• 4. Hanging wall moves upward relative to the foot wall.

63. Higher elevation of the mid oceanic ridge relative to the flanking sea-floor is best explained by:

• 1. Pratt’s theory of isostasy
• 2. Airy’s theory of isostasy
• 3. Positive gravity anomaly
• 4. Negative gravity anomaly

64. Among the planation surfaces, the deep weathering process is best linked to:

• 1. Peneplains
• 2. Pediplains
• 3. Panplains
• 4. Etchplains

Section 10: Regional Geography & Theory (Q65–Q80)

65. What would be the correct pattern of nesting of central places in the marketing principle under Christaller’s Central Place Theory?

• 1. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5…
• 2. 1, 3, 6, 9, 12…
• 3. 1, 3, 6, 12, 24…
• 4. 1, 3, 9, 27, 81…

66. Which one of the following is suitable in understanding crop specialization as well as crop diversity?

• 1. Crop Combination
• 2. Cropping Intensity
• 3. Cropping Efficiency
• 4. Crop Yield

67. Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?

• 1. Tangsa : Tripura
• 2. Adi : Arunachal Pradesh
• 3. Meena : Rajasthan
• 4. Munda : Jharkhand

68. ‘Ethnoburb’ is used to refer to residential patterns of Asian migrants to the cities of:

• 1. Canada, New Zealand, UK and USA
• 2. Australia, Canada, New Zealand and UK
• 3. Australia, Canada, New Zealand and USA
• 4. Australia, New Zealand, South Africa and USA

69. The origin of the conceptual interplay between “place-work-folk”, a key concept in social geography, is found in the works of:

• 1. Vidal de la Blache
• 2. Redfield and Singer
• 3. Friedrich Ratzel
• 4. Frederic le Play

70. Cultivation of fuel wood with crop is known as:

• 1. Viticulture
• 2. Silviculture
• 3. Arboriculture
• 4. Pomiculture

71. In the Weberian Theory of industrial location, the term ‘agglomeration’ is best described by:

• 1. concentration of people
• 2. clustering of labour and raw materials
• 3. clustering of productive activities and people for mutual advantage
• 4. aggregation of market forces

72. The great sociologist who held the view that “education doesn’t bring about social change; rather the social change results into an educational change” was:

• 1. McDougal
• 2. Aristotle
• 3. Durkheim
• 4. Dewey

73. Clustering of rural settlements in an area can be determined by using:

• 1. Nearest Neighbour Analysis
• 2. Christaller’s Central Place Theory
• 3. Cluster Analysis
• 4. Rank-size Rule

74. The term ‘ecumene’ is applied to mean:

• 1. The areas temporarily settled by people.
• 2. The permanently inhabited areas of the earth’s surface.
• 3. The uninhabited areas of the world.
• 4. The areas deserted by people.

75. E. Bylund’s theory has to do with which of the following aspects of rural settlement?

• 1. Expansion
• 2. Morphology
• 3. Planning
• 4. Ecology

76. Who among the following proposed the multiple nuclei model of city growth?

• 1. Harris and Ullmann
• 2. Homer Hoyt
• 3. E. W. Burgess
• 4. Von Thünen

77. What are the underlying characteristics of WTO?

• 1. It facilitates economic co-operation between different countries.
• 2. It acts as an umbrella institution that regulates agreements concluded in the Uruguay round for promotion of free international trade.
• 3. It helps in development of the less developed countries.
• 4. It resolves disputes among world trade blocks.

78. Identify the correct statement with reference to the first phase of globalisation in the Nineteenth Century:

• 1. London was the global, hegemonic centre of political-economic power.
• 2. Wall Street dominated the economic areas.
• 3. Washington DC was the centre of political power.
• 4. There was an intricate connection between the eastern economies.

79. Which among the following locational factors is most important in the case of ‘footloose industries’?

• 1. Capital
• 2. Raw material
• 3. Market
• 4. Labour

80. One needs to find out how much area is eroded or accreted in an administrative unit by a river using bankline polygons of different years in GIS. The procedure one would follow is called:

• 1. Comparison analysis
• 2. Overlay analysis
• 3. Layer-level analysis
• 4. Kriging analysis

Section 11: Remote Sensing & GIS (Q81–Q85)

81. The orbital altitude of a GPS navigation satellite is:

• 1. 10,200 km
• 2. 15,200 km
• 3. 20,200 km
• 4. 36,200 km

82. The cultural logic of late capitalism is often used to explain the nature of:

• 1. Humanistic Geography
• 2. Modernism
• 3. Postmodernism
• 4. Cultural Turn

83. In a standard FCC, vegetation appears red because:

• 1. Red band is shown in green.
• 2. Green band is shown in red.
• 3. Defence-related restrictions prevent disclosure of actual colours.
• 4. NIR band is shown in red.

84. The flow analysis and gravitational analysis are two well known methods for delineation of:

• 1. Formal Region
• 2. both Formal and Functional Region
• 3. Functional Region
• 4. Social Region

85. The Great Andaman group of islands in the north is separated from the Nicobar group in the south by the:

• 1. Five Degree Channel
• 2. Eight Degree Channel
• 3. Twelve Degree Channel
• 4. Ten Degree Channel

Section 12: India — Physical & Economic Geography (Q86–Q100)

86. Assertion (A): The Indus and the Zangbo rivers follow a long distance parallel to the Himalayas before crossing the mountain. Reason (R): The rivers have taken the weakest part of the Himalayas at its syntaxial bends to cross the mountain.

• 1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• 2. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• 3. 1. is true but (R) is false.
• 4. 1. is false but (R) is true.

87. Assertion (A): Urban agglomerations and million plus cities in India are growing very rapidly. Reason (R): Small and satellite towns are not developed in a planned way to reduce the growth of the big cities.

• 1. 1. is true but (R) is not correct.
• 2. Both (R) and (A) are true but (R) is not the only cause of (A).
• 3. 18. is true but (A) is not correct.
• 4. Both (R) and (A) are true and (R) is the correct explanation for (A).

88. The river Cauvery flows through the states of:

• 1. Kerala, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu
• 2. Goa, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu
• 3. Telangana, Tamil Nadu, and Karnataka
• 4. Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu

89. Which of the following regions was proposed by John Friedman to explain the Core Periphery Model?

• 1. Core Region and Upward Transition Region
• 2. Downward Transition Region
• 3. Resource Frontier Region
• 4. It includes (A), (B) and (C)

90. Which of the following countries is not included among the ten members of ASEAN?

• 1. Brunei Darussalam
• 2. Papua New Guinea
• 3. Vietnam
• 4. Philippines

91. The Beaufort scale is related to:

• 1. Velocity of Winds
• 2. Temperature
• 3. Humidity
• 4. Rainfall

92. Which one of the following landforms is not associated with wind erosion?

• 1. Zeugen
• 2. Yardang
• 3. Mesa
• 4. Seif

93. In satellite images, radiometric resolution is related to:

• 1. Number of grey values
• 2. Number of spectral values
• 3. Number of bands
• 4. Number of colour values

94. Which of the following group of rivers originates from the mountains of Himachal Pradesh?

• 1. Beas, Ravi, and Chenab
• 2. Ravi, Chenab, and Jhelum
• 3. Satluj, Beas, and Ravi
• 4. Chenab, Beas, and Jhelum

95. Social development process is primarily directed towards one among the following, identify it.

• 1. Removal of poverty and hunger
• 2. Economic growth with distributive justice
• 3. Integrated women and child development
• 4. Integrated rural development

96. Match the following:

River	Dam/Project
(a) Krishna	(i) Nagarjun Sagar
(b) Satluj	(ii) Tehri
(c) Mahanadi	(iii) Bhakhra Nangal
(d) Bhagirathi	(iv) Hirakud

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
(A)	(i)	(iii)	(iv)	(ii)
(B)	(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)
(C)	(ii)	(iii)	(i)	(iv)
(D)	(i)	(iii)	(ii)	(iv)

97. Who heads the National Commission on Population in India?

• 1. President
• 2. Prime Minister
• 3. Chief Justice of Supreme Court
• 4. Registrar General of India

98. Which of the following coastal areas is known for mining of ‘Rare Earth’?

• 1. Maharashtra coast
• 2. Karnataka coast
• 3. Andhra coast
• 4. Odisha coast

99. The relationship among power structure, the environment and economic inequalities is termed as:

• 1. Political Ecology
• 2. Gerrymandering
• 3. Equality of opportunity
• 4. Authoritative biopower

100. Match List-I with List-II:

**List-I (Climatic type)*

• 1. Tropical Monsoon
• 2. Mediterranean
• 3. Tropical Hot Desert
• 4. Arctic

**List-II (Symbol after Köppen)*

• 1. Csa / Csb
• 2. Am
• 3. ET / EF
• 4. Bwh

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
(A)	(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)
(B)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)	(i)
(C)	(iv)	(ii)	(i)	(iii)
(D)	(ii)	(i)	(iv)	(iii)

*— End of Question Paper —

---

2020 Paper

WB SET 2020

Subject Code: 13 | Maximum Marks: 200 | Time: 2 Hours

Instructions for Candidates

1. Write your Roll Number in the space provided on the top of this page as well as on the OMR Sheet provided.
2. This paper consists of One Hundred (100) multiple-choice type questions. All the questions are compulsory. Each question carries two marks.
3. Each Question has four alternative responses marked: (A) (B) (C) (D). You have to darken the circle on the correct response against each question.
4. There is no negative marking for incorrect answers.

Section 1: Biogeography & Environment (Q1–Q8)

1. Green data book containing a list of

• 1. Rare plant species
• 2. Rare plants and animals
• 3. Endangered plants
• 4. Extinct animal only

2. The following two lists state the name of Bird Sanctuaries and the States where they are situated. Match the Bird Sanctuary with their respective State.

**List-I (Bird Sanctuary)*

• 1. Sultanpur
• 2. Bharatpur
• 3. Nawabganj
• 4. Ranganthithu

**List-II (Name of States)*

• 1. Haryana
• 2. Rajasthan
• 3. Uttar Pradesh
• 4. Karnataka

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
(A)	(ii)	(i)	(iii)	(iv)
(B)	(ii)	(i)	(iv)	(iii)
(C)	(i)	(ii)	(iv)	(iii)
(D)	(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)

3. The terms ‘Pedocals’ and ‘Pedalfers’ were first proposed by

• 1. Hilgard
• 2. Marbut
• 3. Dakuchaev
• 4. Neustreuev

4. Which of the following leaf modifications occur in the desert areas to inhibit water loss?

1. Hard and waxy leaves
2. Tiny leaves or no leaves
3. Drip-tip leaves
4. Thorn instead of leaves

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

• 1. 1, 2 and 3
• 2. 2 and 3
• 3. 1, 2 and 4
• 4. 1 and 4

5. The luxuriant growth of natural vegetation in tropical rain forests is due to

1. the fertile soil.
2. hot and wet weather throughout the year.
3. the intense sunlight for photosynthesis.
4. seasonal change to facilitate nutrient absorption.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

• 1. 1 and 4
• 2. 2 and 3
• 3. 1, 2 and 3
• 4. 2, 3 and 4

6. Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas?

• 1. Methane
• 2. Argon
• 3. Carbon dioxide
• 4. Water vapour

7. Assertion (A): Soil management is fundamental to agricultural system. Reason (R): Managing the soil nutrients, water and air within soil system is fundamental to plants’ growth.

• 1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• 2. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• 3. 1. is true but (R) is false.
• 4. 1. is false but (R) is true.

8. Which one of the following is the main source of CO pollution by human practices?

• 1. Heavy Industries
• 2. Automobile Industries
• 3. Advanced Agricultural Practices
• 4. Mining Activities

Section 2: India — Physical Geography & Transport (Q9–Q13)

9. Which of the following countries has the longest stretch of the proposed Asian Highway Network?

• 1. Kazakhstan
• 2. Iran
• 3. India
• 4. Thailand

10. A lake created by meteorite impact in India is

• 1. Lonar
• 2. Sambar
• 3. Tso Kar
• 4. Loktak

11. Between which of the following mountain ranges the valley of Kashmir is situated?

• 1. The Karakoram and the Pir Panjal Ranges
• 2. The Pir Panjal and the Zaskar Ranges
• 3. The Ladakh and the Zaskar Ranges
• 4. The Kirthar and the Sulaiman Ranges

12. As per India Meteorological Department (IMD) which of the following statements is true?

1. July is the rainiest month in India.
2. Withdrawal of the South-West Monsoon and setting in of Winter Monsoon take place in the middle of October.
3. The South-West Monsoon usually covers the whole country by the end of July.
4. June to September is the normal period of occurrence of the South-West Monsoon.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

• 1. 1, 2 and 3
• 2. 1, 2, 3 and 4
• 3. 2, 3 and 4
• 4. 1, 2 and 4

13. Greta Thunberg, who delivered a sensational speech on a panel at the UN climate summit in New York on 23 September 2019 is a citizen of

• 1. Sweden
• 2. Iceland
• 3. Norway
• 4. Finland

Section 3: Climatology & Atmosphere (Q14–Q22)

14. Geostrophic Wind is originated when

• 1. pressure gradient force is equal to Coriolis force.
• 2. pressure gradient force is balanced by Coriolis force acting in opposite direction.
• 3. pressure gradient force is balanced by Coriolis force and centrifugal acceleration acting together.
• 4. divergence is equal to convergence.

15. The ratio of the weight of water vapour in a parcel of the atmosphere to the total weight of moist air is

• 1. Specific humidity
• 2. Absolute humidity
• 3. Relative humidity
• 4. Mixing ratio

16. The correct sequence of the cloud types with height from the ground level is

• 1. Altocumulus, Cirrocumulus, Stratocumulus, Cumulus
• 2. Cumulus, Stratocumulus, Altocumulus, Cirrocumulus
• 3. Stratocumulus, Altocumulus, Cumulus, Cirrocumulus
• 4. Cumulus, Altocumulus, Cirrocumulus, Stratocumulus

17. Images from which of the following Satellites does NOT provide information on weather elements?

• 1. RESOURCESAT-I
• 2. INSAT-1
• 3. METEOSAT
• 4. NOAA

18. Which of the following conditions are favourable for the formation of dew?

1. Nocturnal radiative cooling below dew point temperature of the air resting near earth’s surface.
2. Warm previous day to raise the moisture content of air.
3. Calm evening without turbulence in the atmosphere.
4. Clear sky.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

• 1. 1 and 2
• 2. 1, 2 and 3
• 3. 1, 2, 3 and 4
• 4. 2, 3 and 4

19. Which among the following is/are the major factor/factors responsible for the monsoon type of climate in India?

1. Location
2. Thermal contrast
3. Upper air circulation
4. Inter-tropical convergence zone

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

• 1. 1
• 2. 2 and 3
• 3. 2, 3 and 4
• 4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

20. Assertion (A): Mackinder’s theory of Heartland put forward a key formula “who rules Europe, commands the Heartland; who rules Heartland, commands the World Island; who rules the World Island command the world.” Reason (R): Mackinder’s formula offered Stalin’s strategy for territorial expansion and international supremacy.

• 1. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• 2. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• 3. 1. is true but (R) is false.
• 4. 1. is false but (R) is true.

21. Form a group of three most closely-related words by selecting one from each of the three columns.

	Column 1	Column 2	Column 3
(a)	Kerghelen Hotspot	(e) Continental convergence	(i) Ninety east Ridge
(b)	Central Asia	(f) Eruption of ocean island basalt	(j) Formation of Pangaea
(c)	Red Sea	(g) Strike-slip faults	(k) Normal faults
(d)	Appalachian mountain	(h) Continental rifting	(l) Indentation tectonics

• 1. a-f-j; b-e-i; c-h-k; d-g-i
• 2. a-f-k; b-g-i; c-h-i; d-e-j
• 3. a-f-i; b-g-l; c-h-k; d-e-j
• 4. a-h-i; b-g-j; c-f-k; d-e-l

22. The most significant plate-driving force is considered to be

• 1. Ridge-push
• 2. Slab-pull
• 3. Basal drive
• 4. Trench suction

Section 4: Geomorphology (Q23–Q35)

23. A river’s channel pattern may alter from braided to meandering due to the following change in its catchment area:

• 1. Increase in rainfall
• 2. Decrease in rainfall
• 3. Urbanisation
• 4. Deforestation

24. Which of the following is the most ideal conditions for the chemical weathering of rocks?

• 1. Cold and dry climate
• 2. Hot and humid climate
• 3. Hot and dry climate
• 4. Cold and humid climate

25. Which of the following features is the indication of a rejuvenation process in a river valley?

• 1. Braiding stream
• 2. Structural terrace
• 3. Alluvial fans
• 4. Entrenched meanders

26. Rock-walled steep depressions caused by the collapse of ground surface in Karst geomorphology is called as

• 1. Cockpits
• 2. Poljes
• 3. Grykes
• 4. Sinkholes

27. Assertion (A): By far the most common and widespread topographic form in a Karst terrain is the sinkhole. Reason (R): Topographically, a sinkhole is a depression that varies in depth from less than a meter to few hundred meters.

• 1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• 2. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• 3. 1. is true but (R) is false.
• 4. 1. is false but (R) is true.

28. Arrange the following concepts in order in which they evolved. Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

I. Principle of Uniformitarianism II. Theory of Continental Drift III. Dynamic Equilibrium Theory IV. Theory of Convection Current

Codes:

29. When two meander necks do not come closer but a channel from one neck joins to other and the main flow turns on that channel is termed as

• 1. Parallel channel flow
• 2. Semi-neck cut off
• 3. Chute cut off
• 4. Non-neck cut off

30. Superimposed profile is drawn to understand the

• 1. break of slope.
• 2. ruggedness of topography.
• 3. panoramic view.
• 4. cyclic nature of landscape.

31. In a periglacial environment, pingos form due to

• 1. Ice wedge coalescence
• 2. Ice core growth
• 3. Ice action
• 4. Ice penetration from active zone

32. Trunks of trees growing on the banks of natural water bodies are often seen to take U-shaped bends. This primarily occurs due to

• 1. Phototropism
• 2. Gravitropism
• 3. Water-level fluctuations
• 4. Creep of the bank materials

33. Assertion (A): Portions of glacial troughs may exhibit remarkably flat floors. Reason (R): The flat floor in a glacial trough is produced by uniform glacial erosion.

• 1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• 2. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• 3. 1. is true but (R) is false.
• 4. 1. is false but (R) is true.

34. Transportation cost does not play a major role in the location of textile industry, because

• 1. cotton is a weight loosing material.
• 2. cotton is a weight gaining material.
• 3. weight loss in cotton during manufacturing is very high.
• 4. weight of cotton is more or less equal to the weight of the finished product.

35. Which one of the following methods is considered as the segregated set of relationship among the factors of an event?

• 1. Flow Analysis
• 2. Principal Component Analysis
• 3. Weighted Index
• 4. Gravity Analysis

Section 5: Biogeography & Statistics (Q36–Q41)

36. Ecotone is an area that can be depicted by quantitative method through

• 1. Neutral Set
• 2. Singular Set
• 3. Intersection Set
• 4. Union Set

37. Consider the following statements: Short duration leptokurtic storm hydrograph is produced at the outlet of a drainage basin when

1. the shape of the basin is circular.
2. the intensity of rainfall is very high.
3. the average slope is less.
4. the drainage density is high.

Which of the above statements is correct?

• 1. 1 and 2
• 2. 3 and 4
• 3. 1 and 3
• 4. 2 and 3

38. In a socio-economic survey when data is collected through a questionnaire in the form of a natural order like — high, medium and low, such data is classified as

• 1. Nominal Data
• 2. Ordinal Data
• 3. Interval Data
• 4. Ratio Data

39. Law of stream number confirms to the mathematical model of

• 1. Positive Exponential Function
• 2. Negative Exponential Function
• 3. Positive Arithmatic Function
• 4. Negative Arithmatic Function

40. In articulating the idea of ‘Possibilism’ La Blache was influenced by the idea of

• 1. Cosmos of Humboldt
• 2. Anthropogeography of Ratzel
• 3. Erdkunde of Ritter
• 4. The Morphology of Landscape of Sauer

41. Darwinism in Social Ecology was first applied by

• 1. W. M. Davis
• 2. T. H. Huxley
• 3. H. Spencer
• 4. Carl O. Sauer

Section 6: Geographical Thought & Philosophy (Q42–Q46)

42. The social theory that appeared as the sequel to Behaviouralism is

• 1. Radicalism
• 2. Structuralism
• 3. Game Theory
• 4. Feminism

43. La Terre is authored by whom of the following?

• 1. Réclus
• 2. Kropotkin
• 3. Ritter
• 4. Huxley

44. Who used ‘Grand Theory’ for the first time?

• 1. D. Harvey
• 2. M. Foucault
• 3. C. W. Mills
• 4. T. Parsons

45. Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) was first introduced in which country?

• 1. Canada
• 2. Sweden
• 3. Norway
• 4. U.S.A.

46. Scholastic relationship under bivariate analysis is primarily a

• 1. Probable relationship
• 2. Estimated relationship
• 3. Linear relationship
• 4. Non-linear relationship

Section 7: Agriculture & Economic Geography (Q47–Q50)

47. The major agricultural regions of the world were first identified by

• 1. Johann Heinrich von Thunen
• 2. Derwent Wittlesey
• 3. William J. Peters
• 4. David Grigg

48. Which of the following correctly describes the characteristics of deep ecology?

1. Holistic view
2. Anthropocentric environmentalism
3. Green movements
4. Simple living

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

• 1. 1, 2 and 3
• 2. 1, 3 and 4
• 3. 2, 3 and 4
• 4. 1, 2 and 4

49. Field capacity with reference to soil-water-plant relationships refers to

• 1. Capillary water
• 2. Capillary and hygroscopic water
• 3. Capillary, hygroscopic and confined water
• 4. Capillary, hygroscopic, confined water and water vapour

50. Match List-I with List-II.

**List-I (Geologic Periods/Epochs)*

• 1. Triassic
• 2. Jurassic
• 3. Pleistocene
• 4. Pliocene

**List-II (Life Forms)*

• 1. Origin of man
• 2. Rise of birds and flying reptiles
• 3. Rise of archaic animals
• 4. Rise of dinosaurs

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
(A)	(iv)	(ii)	(iii)	(i)
(B)	(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)
(C)	(i)	(iv)	(iii)	(ii)
(D)	(iii)	(iv)	(ii)	(i)

Section 8: Fluvial & Oceanography (Q51–Q60)

51. Due to presence of natural levee of main stream, tributary of the main stream sometimes may flow parallel to the main stream before joining. This is called

• 1. Anabranching stream
• 2. Braided channel
• 3. Yazoo stream
• 4. Anastomosing channel

52. Which of the following geological era is associated with the folding of the Himalayan mountain system?

• 1. Caenozoic
• 2. Mesozoic
• 3. Palaeozoic
• 4. Azoic

53. Match the following Pressure Belts with Latitudes:

**Pressure Belts*

• 1. Equatorial Low Pressure Belt
• 2. Subtropical High Pressure Belt
• 3. Subpolar Low Pressure Belt
• 4. Polar High Pressure Belt

**Latitudes*

• 1. 25°–35° North and South
• 2. 5°–5° North and South
• 3. 60°–65° North and South
• 4. 85°–90° North and South

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
(A)	(2)	(1)	(3)	(4)
(B)	(1)	(2)	(3)	(4)
(C)	(3)	(4)	(2)	(1)
(D)	(4)	(3)	(2)	(1)

54. In which of the following continents the range of temperatures ever recorded had been the minimum?

• 1. Asia
• 2. Africa
• 3. Australia
• 4. Antarctica

55. ‘Fordism’ is used to describe

• 1. manufacturing technique only.
• 2. societal condition only.
• 3. Neither (A) nor (B)
• 4. Both (A) and (B)

56. The ‘γ’ value of a correlation coefficient varies between

• 1. +1.0 to −1.0
• 2. 0 to +1.0
• 3. −1.0 to 0.0
• 4. 1.00 to 10.0

57. Which one of the following pairs is incorrect?

• 1. Isobar – Pressure
• 2. Isotherm – Temperature
• 3. Isohels – Wind Velocity
• 4. Isohytes – Rainfall

58. The Hill Areas Development Programme in India was initiated during

• 1. the Seventh 5 Year Plan Period.
• 2. the Second 5 Year Plan Period.
• 3. the Fourth 5 Year Plan Period.
• 4. the Fifth 5 Year Plan Period.

59. The growth centre programme to promote industrialisation of backward areas in India was introduced in which year?

• 1. 1951
• 2. 1973
• 3. 1988
• 4. 1991

60. The data of estimation of India’s National Income is issued by

• 1. Census of India
• 2. National Data Centre
• 3. Central Statistical Organisation
• 4. NITI Aayog

Section 9: Indian Economy & Regional Development (Q61–Q70)

61. The Second Five Year Plan in India was based on

• 1. Herold-Domar Model
• 2. P. C. Mahalanobis Model
• 3. V. T. Stanberry Model
• 4. A. R. Kuklinski Model

62. Which one of the following is not the essential characteristics of post-Fordism?

• 1. Reliance on e-transaction of capital
• 2. Reliance on heavy industries
• 3. Reliance on market linked production
• 4. Reliance on share market

63. The theory of Mobility Transition Model is conditioned by

• 1. birth rate, death rate and migration of population of a region.
• 2. birth rate and death rate of a region.
• 3. population growth, level of urbanization and change of technology.
• 4. import, export and capital flow.

64. The abstract belief systems that pass over from generation to generation is called

• 1. Artifact
• 2. Mentifact
• 3. Sociofact
• 4. Cultural diffusion

65. Which of the following characterises Mixed Farming?

• 1. Practice of cultivation of crops and raising livestock simultaneously.
• 2. Practice of growing two or more crops simultaneously in the same field.
• 3. Practice of growing different crops in succession in the same field.
• 4. Practice of raising alternate crops successively for subsistence and marketing.

66. Which of the following activities is performed quite close to the market as per Von Thunen’s model of Agricultural Location?

• 1. Extensive grain farming
• 2. Dairying and market gardening
• 3. Mixed farming
• 4. Extensive stock raising

67. The classic essay “The Tragedy of the Commons” was written by

• 1. David Harvey
• 2. Charles Darwin
• 3. David Smith
• 4. Garrett Hardin

68. The ‘Multiple Nuclei Model’ states that

• 1. urban land use shows a series of circular belts around the city centre.
• 2. cities do not develop any recognizable zones of land use.
• 3. wedge-shaped zones radiate outward from the central business district.
• 4. cities develop several nodes of growth each with specialised use.

69. Who introduced the idea of ‘Garden City’?

• 1. Le Corbusier
• 2. Robert Owen
• 3. Ebenezer Howard
• 4. Frank Lloyd Wright

70. Which among the following is odd?

• 1. Mercantile model : Vance
• 2. Metropolitan evolution : Borchert
• 3. Selective urban growth : Muller
• 4. Central Place theory : Christaller

Section 10: Settlement & Population Geography (Q71–Q81)

71. As per the classification of towns by the Census of India 2011, Class-III towns have a population of

• 1. 50,000 to 99,999
• 2. 20,000 to 49,999
• 3. 10,000 to 19,999
• 4. 5,000 to 9,999

72. Which one of the following rural settlements has the best road network?

• 1. Street village
• 2. Peri-urban village
• 3. Transit village
• 4. Cruciform village

73. Which one is considered as the best combination as precondition of pre-industrial urban growth?

• 1. Population – Environment – Technology – Social organization
• 2. Population – Political organization – Social Organization – Technology – Trade
• 3. Population – Environment – Technology – Trade
• 4. Population – Trade – Transport – Political Organization

74. Growth of population through the successive stage of ‘Demographic Transition Model’ has the appearance of a

• 1. Geometric curve
• 2. Exponential curve
• 3. Sigmoid curve
• 4. Parabolic curve

75. ‘Fecundity’ is

• 1. Capacity to reproduce
• 2. Actual reproductive performance
• 3. Actual births taken place
• 4. Inability to reproduce

76. The Boserupian theory of population growth is most appropriate for which society?

• 1. All societies
• 2. Developed societies
• 3. Subsistence societies
• 4. Bourgeoise society

77. As per the United Nations, when did the world population reach the one billion mark for the first time?

• 1. 1787
• 2. 1804
• 3. 1857
• 4. 1927

78. For small distance migration, female migration overtakes male due to

• 1. demographic structure of the society.
• 2. occupational structure of the society.
• 3. economic structure of the society.
• 4. patriarchal structure of the society.

79. Which district of West Bengal among the following has the highest concentration of Sabaras?

• 1. Purulia
• 2. Bankura
• 3. Paschim Medinipur
• 4. Jhargram

80. Two-thirds of the world population live in

• 1. the northern hemisphere.
• 2. the areas between 20° and 50° South.
• 3. the areas between 20° and 60° North.
• 4. the temperate areas of the world.

81. The third stage of demographic transition is marked by

• 1. declining birth rate and low population growth.
• 2. high birth and death rates.
• 3. low birth and death rates.
• 4. high natural increase of population.

Section 11: Oceanography (Q82–Q86)

82. In which part of the oceans and seas oozes are quite uncommon in their occurrences?

• 1. Abyssal plain
• 2. Oceanic deeps
• 3. Summits of sea mounts
• 4. Submarine canyons

83. Which of the following types of tides have the highest amplitude given the other factors remaining the same?

• 1. Spring tides
• 2. Perigean neap tides
• 3. Perigean spring tides
• 4. Apogean spring tides

84. The CaCO₃ compensation depth in seas is usually about

• 1. 4,000 m
• 2. 4,500 m
• 3. 5,000 m
• 4. 5,500 m

85. The average global rate of sea-level rise at present is about

• 1. 1.6 mm/yr
• 2. 2.1 mm/yr
• 3. 2.6 mm/yr
• 4. 3.3 mm/yr

86. Past records of sea-level changes are best deciphered from

• 1. Sandy coasts
• 2. Rocky coasts
• 3. Mangrove-fringed coasts
• 4. Ice-fringed coasts

Section 12: Political Geography & Geomorphology (Q87–Q93)

87. The concept of ‘Lebensraum’ in Political Geography refers to

• 1. a living space sought for occupation by a nation with expanding population.
• 2. a territory not occupied by any nation.
• 3. a buffer zone between two nations.
• 4. a boundary area with rich natural resources.

88. A continuous spiral motion of water as it flows along a river channel is termed as

• 1. Helical flow
• 2. Laminar flow
• 3. Steady flow
• 4. Base flow

89. Residual Hums landscape feature is found in

• 1. Karst topography
• 2. Desert landscape
• 3. Glacio-fluvial landscape
• 4. Areas of marine transgression

90. Shingles are the water-worn rounded stones, usually associated with

• 1. Fluvial process
• 2. Glacial process
• 3. Aeolian process
• 4. Marine process

91. The time interval between two steady state or equilibrium conditions is called

• 1. Relaxation time
• 2. Steady time
• 3. Geosync time
• 4. Alteration time

92. Compared to true dip, the value of apparent dip of a sedimentary stratum is

• 1. either higher or lower.
• 2. always higher.
• 3. always lower.
• 4. different by 90° in strike direction.

93. Lahars are best described as mass-movement features associated with

• 1. Volcanoes
• 2. Mud banks
• 3. Valley sidewalls
• 4. Landslide scars

Section 13: Geographical Thought & Political Geography (Q94–Q100)

94. The Globe was divided into ‘geostrategic realms’ by whom?

• 1. Bassin
• 2. Cohen
• 3. Kjellen
• 4. Parker

95. The ‘Rimland Theory’ was propounded by whom among the following?

• 1. Bernard Grofman
• 2. Richard Morrill
• 3. Martin Glassner
• 4. Nicholas Spykman

96. Which of the following are basic elements in Peter Haggett’s model for the Study of Spatial Systems? (I) Channels (II) Diffusion (III) Hierarchies (IV) Movements (V) Surfaces

Codes:

• 1. 1. and (II)
• 2. (I), (II) and (IV)
• 3. 3. only
• 4. (I), (II), (III), (IV) and (V)

97. The term ‘Geopiety’ was coined by whom?

• 1. C. O. Sauer
• 2. A. Buttimer
• 3. J. K. Wright
• 4. Yi-Fu Tuan

98. Arrange the following binaries and identify the correct option:

	Column A		Column B
a.	General	I.	Emotional
b.	Explanation	II.	Complexity
c.	Objectivity	III.	Particular
d.	Order	IV.	Interpretation
e.	Rational	V.	Subjectivity

• 1. a–II, b–I, c–III, d–V, e–IV
• 2. a–V, b–IV, c–III, d–II, e–I
• 3. a–III, b–IV, c–V, d–II, e–I
• 4. a–I, b–III, c–V, d–IV, e–II

99. Empiricism is associated with whom?

• 1. John Locke
• 2. David Hume
• 3. August Comte
• 4. Edmund Husserl

100. S. B. Jones’ view of states was based on the idea of

• 1. Deutsch, Gottman and Hartshorne
• 2. Mackinder, Gottman and Hartshorne
• 3. Deutsch, Gottman and Mackinder
• 4. Ratzel, Hartshorne and Johnston

*— End of Question Paper —