# WB SET 2025

**Subject Code:** 13 | **Series:** X | **Maximum Marks:** 200 | **Time:** 2 Hours

> **Instructions:** 100 multiple-choice questions. All questions are compulsory. Each question carries **2 marks**. No negative marking.



## Questions 1–10: Geomorphology

**1.** Two cuestas converge northward and have dipslopes facing each other. This denotes

- (A) southward plunging anticline
- (B) southward plunging syncline
- (C) northward plunging anticline
- (D) northward plunging syncline



**2.** A large-scale sheet of rock, pushed over other rock mass along low angle fault plane and displaced from its original location is structurally known as

- (A) Imbricate thrusting
- (B) Rift valley
- (C) En-echelon faulting
- (D) Nappe



**3.** According to Wood's slope evolution model, the retreat of the free face in the initial stage results in

- (A) the development of an upper waning slope
- (B) the development of an upper rectilinear slope
- (C) the development of a lower waxing slope
- (D) the development of summital concavity



**4.** Which of the following largely regulates the alternation of oxidation state from ferrous oxides to ferric oxides?

- (A) Ionic potential
- (B) Redox potential
- (C) Cation exchange capacity
- (D) Base exchange capacity



**5.** The correct arrangement of mass movement types in order of increasing dryness of materials is

- (A) Mudflow, Solifluction, Creep, Rockslide
- (B) Solifluction, Mudflow, Rockslide, Creep
- (C) Mudflow, Creep, Solifluction, Rockslide
- (D) Creep, Mudflow, Rockslide, Solifluction



**6.** Assertion (A): High concentration of suspended sediment increases transportational capacity of the stream.
Reason (R): Viscosity increases by the high concentration of suspended sediment load which reduces turbulence and energy dissipation.

Select the correct option:

- (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
- (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
- (C) (A) is correct but (R) is false
- (D) (A) is false but (R) is correct



**7.** Study the following diagram and identify the different types of geomorphic equilibria:

*(Diagram shows: line **a** above Equilibrium state 2; line **b** between Equilibrium state 1 and a Threshold; line **c** below the Threshold)

- (A) a. Unstable equilibrium, b. Metastable equilibrium, c. Dynamic equilibrium
- (B) a. Metastable equilibrium, b. Dynamic equilibrium, c. Unstable equilibrium
- (C) a. Dynamic equilibrium, b. Unstable equilibrium, c. Metastable equilibrium
- (D) a. Dynamic equilibrium, b. Metastable equilibrium, c. Unstable equilibrium



**8.** Assertion (A): Impoundment of a river decreases its downstream entrainment capacity.
Reason (R): Water velocity drops in a reservoir.

Select the correct option:

- (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
- (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
- (C) (A) is true but (R) is false
- (D) (A) is false but (R) is true



**9.** Match the following lists:

| Geomorphic Features | Geomorphic Processes |
|---|---|
| (a) Estavelle | (i) Coastal |
| (b) Kettle hole | (ii) Periglacial |
| (c) Gloup | (iii) Glacial |
| (d) Sandar | (iv) Karstic |
| | (v) Glaciofluvial |

Codes:

- (A) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(v)
- (B) (a)-(v), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
- (C) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
- (D) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)



**10.** Match the given erosional surfaces with their propounders:

| List-I (Surface) | List-II (Propounder) |
|---|---|
| (a) Endrumpf | (i) E. J. Wayland |
| (b) Panplain | (ii) L.C. King |
| (c) Pediplain | (iii) W. Penck |
| (d) Etchplain | (iv) C.H. Crickmay |

Codes:

- (A) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
- (B) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
- (C) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
- (D) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)



## Questions 11–20: Climatology & Atmosphere

**11.** Which of the following techniques of measuring atmospheric moisture is based on electrical resistance?

- (A) Psychrometer
- (B) Dew-point hygrometer
- (C) Lithium chloride based hygrometer
- (D) Hair hygrograph



**12.** Following are some of the greenhouse gases:
(i) CH₄ (Methane), (ii) CO₂ (Carbon dioxide), (iii) CFC-11 (Chlorofluorocarbon-11), (iv) N₂O (Nitrous oxide)

Choose the appropriate order based on their Global Warming Potential (GWP):

- (A) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)
- (B) (i), (iv), (ii), (iii)
- (C) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
- (D) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)



**13.** Go through the following characteristics and identify the appropriate atmospheric layer:
(i) Effective lid on convection, (ii) Isothermal, (iii) Height varies latitudinally, (iv) Average temperature ranges from -70°C to -85°C, (v) Average pressure is 100 mb

- (A) Mesosphere
- (B) Stratosphere
- (C) Mesopause
- (D) Tropopause



**14.** Assertion (A): The speed of geostrophic thermal wind increases with height.
Reason (R): Each isobaric surface slopes more steeply than the one below it.

Select the correct option:

- (A) (A) is false but (R) is true
- (B) (A) is true but (R) is false
- (C) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
- (D) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)



**15.** Which of the following are considered to be the criticism of Thornthwaite Climate Classification?
(i) Limited climatic variables — ignores prevailing wind, air pressure, airmass
(ii) It uses indices, thereby cannot be replicated for other areas
(iii) Overemphasis on water balance — may not capture climate variability
(iv) Vegetation linkages — it inappropriately explains biogeographical pattern

- (A) (i) and (iii) only
- (B) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
- (C) (ii) and (iii) only
- (D) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only



**16.** Match the following columns:

| Atmospheric Condition/Stability | Condition |
|---|---|
| (a) Absolutely stable | (i) ELR < WALR |
| (b) Conditionally stable | (ii) ELR = DALR |
| (c) Absolutely unstable | (iii) WALR < ELR < DALR |
| (d) Neutral stability | (iv) ELR > DALR |

Codes:

- (A) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
- (B) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
- (C) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
- (D) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)



**17.** Identify the false statement from the following:

- (A) Limestone sediments and fossil fuels are the major reservoirs of CO₂ in land
- (B) O₃ is mainly formed between 30–60 km above the ground by collision of O₂ and O
- (C) Dry adiabatic lapse rate is constant
- (D) Saturated adiabatic lapse rate is high under high temperature



**18.** Which among the following types of climate change causing agents are susceptible to anthropogenic alteration?

- (A) Non-radiative forcing agents
- (B) External radiative forcing agents
- (C) Internal radiative forcing agents
- (D) Astronomical forcing agents



**19.** Averaged over a year, approximately __________ W of solar energy reaches every m² of earth.

- (A) 278
- (B) 297
- (C) 306
- (D) 342



**20.** Dish-pan experiment relates to the formation of __________.

- (A) Polar Vortex
- (B) ENSO
- (C) Rossby Waves
- (D) Easterly Jet Streams



## Questions 21–30: Oceanography

**21.** Elevation difference across the ocean floor fracture zones is not explained by the plate's

- (A) Material differences
- (B) Temperature difference
- (C) Age difference
- (D) Density difference



**22.** The morphology of a slow-spreading mid-oceanic ridge axis is characterised by

- (A) axial graben with 1500–3000 m depth, faulted topography and intermittent shield volcanoes
- (B) axial graben with 50–100 m depth, thrust faults and discrete central volcanoes
- (C) axial graben with not more than 100–200 m depth, having en-echelon faults and moderately continuous central volcanoes
- (D) no axial valley, active thrust faults and continuous shield volcanoes



**23.** The Swatch of No Ground is a submarine canyon extending offshore from the mouth or delta of the

- (A) Amazon river
- (B) Congo river
- (C) Ganga river
- (D) Hudson river



**24.** Select the correct statement:

- (A) Pycnocline is a halocline; it can also be a thermocline
- (B) Pycnocline is a thermocline; it can also be a halocline
- (C) Pycnocline is a halocline; it can never be a thermocline
- (D) Pycnocline is a thermocline; it can never be a halocline



**25.** Assertion (A): Calcareous oozes are found in lower latitudes and up to a depth of 4500 m.
Reason (R): Organisms with carbonate shells predominate in warm, shallow water and calcium carbonate dissolves very slowly below the depth of 4500 m.

Select the correct option:

- (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
- (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
- (C) (A) is true but (R) is false
- (D) (A) is false but (R) is true



**26.** Match the following lists:

| List-I (Breaker Types) | List-II (Beach Gradient) | List-III (Beach Grain Size) | List-IV (Level of Energy Dissipation) |
|---|---|---|---|
| (a) Spilling Breaker | (i) Steep | (1) Coarse | (I) Less |
| (b) Plunging Breaker | (ii) Moderate | (2) Moderate | (II) Moderate |
| (c) Surging Breaker | (iii) Gentle | (3) Fine | (III) High |

- (A) (a)–(iii)–(2)–(III); (b)–(i)–(1)–(III); (c)–(iii)–(1)–(II)
- (B) (a)–(i)–(3)–(II); (b)–(ii)–(1)–(III); (c)–(i)–(1)–(II)
- (C) (a)–(iii)–(3)–(III); (b)–(ii)–(2)–(II); (c)–(i)–(1)–(I)
- (D) (a)–(ii)–(3)–(III); (b)–(i)–(2)–(III); (c)–(i)–(2)–(II)



**27.** Read the statements about rotating tide and select the correct option:
(i) Tidal amplitude increases away from amphidromic point.
(ii) Velocity of tidal wave is proportional to the depth of ocean.

- (A) Both (i) and (ii) are correct
- (B) Both (i) and (ii) are false
- (C) (i) is correct but (ii) is false
- (D) (i) is false but (ii) is correct



**28.** A wave approaching the coastline indicates transformation of wave parameters in which manner?

- (A) Wave height decreases, celerity increases, wave length decreases
- (B) Wave height increases, celerity decreases, wave length decreases
- (C) Wave height increases, celerity increases, wave length decreases
- (D) Wave height decreases, celerity decreases, wave length increases



**29.** According to Forchammer's principle, potassium constitutes ________% of dissolved salt in seawater.

- (A) 0·8
- (B) 0·9
- (C) 1·0
- (D) 1·1



**30.** Which among the following processes is not used for desalination of ocean water?

- (A) Reverse osmosis
- (B) Osmosis
- (C) Electrolysis
- (D) Freeze separation



## Questions 31–40: Biogeography & Environment

**31.** Match List-I with List-II and select the correct option:

| List-I | List-II |
|---|---|
| (a) Photo autotroph organisms | (i) can adapt to the presence or absence of oxygen |
| (b) Chemo autotroph organisms | (ii) obtain their energy from photosynthesis |
| (c) Zymogenous organisms | (iii) obtain their energy from oxidation of compounds |
| (d) Facultative organisms | (iv) proliferate rapidly in the presence of an organic substrate |

Codes:

- (A) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
- (B) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
- (C) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
- (D) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)



**32.** In which one of the following biogeochemical cycles is the rate of turnover slowest with respect to residence time in lithosphere?

- (A) Carbon
- (B) Phosphorus
- (C) Nitrogen
- (D) Sulphur



**33.** Which of the following pollutants is not included in National Air Quality Index (AQI) in India but is considered to calculate National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) in India?

- (A) Lead
- (B) Ozone
- (C) Ammonia
- (D) Arsenic



**34.** Match List-I with List-II and select the correct option:

| List-I | List-II |
|---|---|
| (a) London smog | (i) Forest fire |
| (b) Photochemical smog | (ii) Thermal power plant and industries |
| (c) Nitrogen dioxide | (iii) Volatile organic compound |
| (d) Formic acid | (iv) High concentration of SO₂ |

Codes:

- (A) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
- (B) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
- (C) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
- (D) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)



**35.** Assertion (A): In a stable climate, forests generally sequester more carbon than grasslands.
Reason (R): Forests store most of their carbon in above-ground woody biomass.

Select the correct option:

- (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
- (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
- (C) (A) is false but (R) is true
- (D) Both (A) and (R) are false



**36.** Assertion (A): Satellite remote sensing is useful for land degradation monitoring.
Reason (R): INSAT & GNSS satellites provide regular and precise location as well as data.

Select the correct option:

- (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
- (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
- (C) (A) is false but (R) is true
- (D) Both (A) and (R) are false



**37.** Assertion (A): Urban Heat Island (UHI) refers to any area being significantly warmer than surrounding rural regions.
Reason (R): Urban modelling for city planning is effective in countering UHI effect.

Select the correct option:

- (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
- (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
- (C) (A) is false but (R) is true
- (D) Both (A) and (R) are false



**38.** Statement (i): Dam construction and submersion lead to loss of arable farmland and forest.
Statement (ii): These losses are borne disproportionately by people living in the command areas.

Select the correct option:

- (A) Both (i) and (ii) are true and (i) will cause (ii)
- (B) Both (i) and (ii) are true but (i) will not cause (ii)
- (C) (i) is true but (ii) is false
- (D) (i) is false but (ii) is true



**39.** Match List-I with List-II and select the correct option:

| List-I (Coastal Type/Zone) | List-II (CRZ Category) |
|---|---|
| (a) 22 km offshore from LTL | (i) I A |
| (b) Intertidal area | (ii) I B |
| (c) Turtle nesting grounds | (iii) III B |
| (d) Area with population density of <2161/km² (2011) | (iv) IV A |
| | (v) IV B |

Codes:

- (A) (a)-(v), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
- (B) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
- (C) (a)-(v), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
- (D) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)



**40.** Norcondam Island relates to which of the following?

- (A) Volcanic dome
- (B) Stratovolcano
- (C) Exposed Seamount
- (D) Hotspot



## Questions 41–50: Population & Settlement Geography

**41.** Match List-I with List-II and select the correct option with regard to demographic transition:

| List-I (Factor) | List-II (Outcome) |
|---|---|
| (a) Increased access to education and female employment | (i) Delays transition from stage-2 to stage-3 |
| (b) Persistent reliance on subsistence agriculture | (ii) Facilitates demographic dividend |
| (c) Widespread improvement in healthcare/sanitation | (iii) Drives decline in death rate |
| (d) Increased urbanisation and growth of middle class | (iv) Contributes to lower birth rate |

Codes:

- (A) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
- (B) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
- (C) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
- (D) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)



**42.** What does DALY stand for?

- (A) Daily Adjusted Life Year
- (B) Defined Age Life Year
- (C) Disability Adjusted Life Years
- (D) Death Adjusted Life Years



**43.** Assertion (A): Scandinavian countries have a regressive age-sex population structure.
Reason (R): The population growth rate is negative in these countries.

Select the correct option:

- (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
- (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
- (C) (A) is true but (R) is false
- (D) (A) is false but (R) is true



**44.** Match List-I with List-II and select the correct code:

| List-I | List-II |
|---|---|
| (a) Short distance migration | (i) Lee's theory |
| (b) Push-Pull factors | (ii) Ravenstein's theory |
| (c) Household level decision-making to diversify income | (iii) Migration system theory |
| (d) Historical linkage, feedback loops and network dynamics | (iv) New economies of labour migration approach |

Codes:

- (A) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
- (B) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
- (C) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
- (D) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)



**45.** Read the following statements and choose the correct option:
(i) Compact settlements occur in the alluvial plains of the tropical areas.
(ii) Dispersed settlements are found in the tropical coastal plains.
(iii) Star-like settlements grow in the confluence areas of the big rivers.

- (A) (i) and (iii) are correct
- (B) (ii) is correct, but (iii) is incorrect
- (C) (i) is correct, but (ii) is incorrect
- (D) (i) and (iii) are incorrect



**46.** Which of the following are the suitable measures to address the problem of traffic congestion in an urban area?
(i) Absence of parking space for private vehicles
(ii) More use of public transport
(iii) Improvement of signalling system
(iv) Absolute restriction of entry of vehicles

Codes:

- (A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
- (B) (i), (iii), (iv) only
- (C) (ii), (iii), (iv) only
- (D) (i), (ii), (iii) only



**47.** Consider the following statements and select the correct option:
(i) Gordon Childe argued that merchants were the primary catalysts for urban revival in Europe.
(ii) Henri Pirenne's theory of urban development centres around production of agricultural surplus, particularly surplus food through advanced agriculture.
(iii) Lewis Mumford viewed urban growth as an organic process rooted in human social needs.
(iv) Gordon Childe saw the neolithic village as the foundation of urban life.

- (A) (i) and (iii) only
- (B) (iii) and (iv) only
- (C) (iii) only
- (D) (iv) only



**48.** Assertion (A): The rank-size rule accurately predicts the population of every city in a country without any deviation.
Reason (R): The rank-size rule is based on the observation that in some countries, the population of a city is approximately inversely proportional to its rank in the urban hierarchy.

Select the correct option:

- (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
- (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
- (C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false
- (D) (A) is false, but (R) is correct



**49.** Match List-I with List-II and select the correct option:

| List-I | List-II |
|---|---|
| (a) W. J. Reilly | (i) Least Effort Principle |
| (b) G. K. Zipf | (ii) Spatial Interaction Model |
| (c) S. A. Stouffer | (iii) Law of Retail Gravitation |
| (d) T. Hägerstrand | (iv) Intervening Opportunities Model |

Codes:

- (A) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
- (B) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
- (C) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
- (D) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)



**50.** Who put forward the theory that the first towns originated from 'cities of the dead' and not from settlements?

- (A) Henri Pirenne
- (B) Gordon Childe
- (C) Lewis Mumford
- (D) John Friedman



## Questions 51–60: Economic Geography & Regional Development

**51.** The following are some of the strategies to be adopted for managing the world energy crisis sustainably. Choose the best and most practical one.

- (A) Stabilization of prices of the energy resources
- (B) Promotion of sustainable production and consumption of energy
- (C) Diversification of energy sources investing more in renewable energy technologies
- (D) Promotion of international collaboration to address global energy crisis



**52.** Which one of the following denotes the meaning of agricultural productivity?

- (A) Total output of crops in an area
- (B) Gross production of crops in an area in a particular season
- (C) Crop output per unit of area
- (D) Total agricultural production of an area



**53.** Match List-I with List-II and select the correct option:

| List-I (Industrial Regions) | List-II (Industrial Centres) |
|---|---|
| (a) Eastern Europe | (i) Great Lakes & Boston |
| (b) Western & Central Europe | (ii) Volga Basin & parts of Ukraine |
| (c) Eastern-North America | (iii) Pearl River Delta & Tokyo-Yokohama |
| (d) Eastern Asia | (iv) Ruhr & Paris Basins |

Codes:

- (A) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
- (B) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
- (C) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
- (D) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)



**54.** Which one of the following is a negative impact of globalization on the manufacturing sector in the less developed countries?

- (A) Foreign direct investment in establishing manufacturing plants has substantially increased
- (B) Multinational companies are establishing plants to take advantage of the local resources
- (C) Low wage to workers has led to labour exploitation
- (D) Access to global markets has enhanced quantum of exports



**55.** Which of the following statements is correct?
(i) World Trade Organization was formed in 2005 to replace United Nations Conference on Trade and Development.
(ii) World Trade Organization's equal treatment rule ensures same trade benefits for all members.
(iii) World Trade Organization's rules apply only to developed countries.
(iv) World Trade Organization's dispute body imposes sanctions without negotiations.

- (A) (ii) only
- (B) (ii) and (iii) only
- (C) (iii) and (iv) only
- (D) (iv) only



**56.** Consider the following:
(a) Three main principles of Edward Ullman's spatial interaction are complementarity, transferability and intervening opportunities.
(b) M. E. Hurst's work on spatial interaction primarily focussed on the development of the gravity model.
(c) In Ullman's concept of complementarity, spatial interaction occurs only when there is a supply in one location and a demand in another.
(d) Hurst's work on spatial interaction emphasized the role of transportation infrastructure in shaping urban development patterns.

Which of the statement(s) is/are false?

- (A) (a), (c) and (d) only
- (B) (b) and (d) only
- (C) (c) only
- (D) (b) only



**57.** Assertion (A): According to Hirschman, investing in a leading sector can create a 'trickle-down' effect to less developed regions.
Reason (R): The trickle-down effect occurs because surplus labour from under-developed areas migrate to the leading sector.

Select the correct option:

- (A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
- (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
- (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
- (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true



**58.** Boundary of functional regions are typically determined by

- (A) administrative convenience and divisions
- (B) government decree
- (C) extent of central activity
- (D) physical features like rivers and mountains



**59.** Assertion (A): Regional imbalances in India are primarily caused by uneven development due to historical, geographical and economical factors.
Reason (R): Unequal investment in states by the central government.

Choose the correct option:

- (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
- (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
- (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
- (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true



**60.** Which of the following is NOT a benefit of intra-regional cooperation?

- (A) Increased trade and investment opportunities
- (B) Enhanced political stability and security
- (C) Limited access to resources
- (D) Improved infrastructure and connectivity



## Questions 61–70: Cultural & Political Geography

**61.** Given below are two statements. Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(i) Acculturation refers to a process where distinct cultures retain their unique identities despite interaction.
(ii) Cultural divergence is a process where one culture adopts traits of another while retaining some of its original characteristics.

- (A) Only (i) is correct
- (B) Only (ii) is correct
- (C) Both (i) and (ii) are correct
- (D) Neither (i) nor (ii) is correct



**62.** Match List-I with List-II:

| List-I | List-II |
|---|---|
| (a) Culture | (i) Cultural traits that are functionally interrelated |
| (b) Cultural Complex | (ii) Area that is distinct from surrounding areas in specific characteristics |
| (c) Cultural Region | (iii) Specialized behavioural pattern, understanding and adaptation of a group |
| (d) Cultural Integration | (iv) Interlocking nature of the sociological, technological and ideological subsystem |

Codes:

- (A) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
- (B) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
- (C) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
- (D) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)



**63.** Assertion (A): Maladaptation in cultural ecology can lead to environmental degradation.
Reason (R): Practices like overgrazing can cause desertification, harming both the environment and the society relying on it.

Choose the correct option:

- (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
- (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
- (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
- (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true



**64.** Which among these is not a cultural complex related to agricultural activities?

- (A) Ploughing, puddling and tilling of wet soil
- (B) Practice of herbicide application and manual weeding
- (C) Preparation of rice pudding
- (D) Preparation of rice pudding for Pongal & Bhogi



**65.** Which organization is known for recognising and protecting World Heritage Sites?

- (A) International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)
- (B) International Council on Monuments and Sites (ICOMOS)
- (C) United Nations Educational Scientific and Cultural Organisation (UNESCO)
- (D) World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF)



**66.** Which of the following statement(s) is/are not true?
(i) Scheduled tribes in India are largely concentrated in the hilly and forested tracts of India.
(ii) Most of the tribal groups in North-East India speak Mon-Khmer language.
(iii) Religious minorities in India have greater representation in the geographical periphery of the country.
(iv) Distribution of scheduled tribes and scheduled castes in India is characterised by a spatial dichotomy.

Codes:

- (A) (ii) and (iii) only
- (B) (ii) only
- (C) (iii) and (iv) only
- (D) (iv) only



**67.** How does the concept of cumulative disadvantage relate to social exclusion?

- (A) It describes how advantages accumulate for the privileged groups over time
- (B) It refers to the compounding effects of multiple forms of exclusion across an individual's life course
- (C) It explains equal distribution of resources among the marginalized
- (D) It highlights the role of social inclusion in reducing poverty



**68.** Assertion (A): Mackinder's Heartland Theory ignores the role of technology in geopolitics.
Reason (R): The theory was developed before air power and nuclear weapons existed.

Choose the correct option:

- (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
- (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
- (C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false
- (D) (A) is false, but (R) is correct



**69.** Which among the following states of India share international boundaries with three countries?

- (A) Rajasthan, West Bengal and Sikkim
- (B) Arunachal Pradesh, Tripura and West Bengal
- (C) Sikkim, West Bengal and Arunachal Pradesh
- (D) Sikkim, West Bengal and Bihar



**70.** Subsequent boundaries are those which follow

- (A) demarcation based on natural resources
- (B) demarcation based on settlement sites
- (C) demarcation based on pre-existing cultural difference
- (D) demarcation based on settlement and modification by human activity and cultural traits



## Questions 71–80: Geographical Thought & Philosophy

**71.** Which of the following statements on the outcome of the Quantitative Revolution (QR) is correct?

- (A) QR was successful in making geography a scientific and applied discipline
- (B) Geography was misdirected and misinterpreted during the time of QR
- (C) Geography became more ideographic in approach after the QR
- (D) QR did not have any visible impact on geography in India



**72.** Match the names of the scholars in List-I with their fields of contribution in List-II:

| List-I (Scholars) | List-II (Field of contribution) |
|---|---|
| (a) Friedrich Ratzel | (i) Locational analysis |
| (b) Richard Hartshorne | (ii) Anthropogeography |
| (c) Ellen C. Semple | (iii) Areal differentiation |
| (d) Peter Haggett | (iv) Environmental determinism |

Codes:

- (A) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
- (B) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
- (C) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
- (D) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)



**73.** Positivism as a philosophical approach relies on

- (A) study of environmental ethics and conservation
- (B) positive values in geographical analysis
- (C) formal construction of theories capable of empirical verification
- (D) rejection of laws and generalization in geographical research



**74.** The hypothesis which is 'provisionally accepted as a basis of further research' is known as

- (A) Complex hypothesis
- (B) Working (Empirical) hypothesis
- (C) Statistical hypothesis
- (D) Null hypothesis



**75.** Match List-I with List-II and select the correct option:

| List-I | List-II |
|---|---|
| (a) Affective ties between people and place | (i) Phenomenology |
| (b) No idea or belief is absolutely certain | (ii) Fallibilism |
| (c) Disorder, chaos and difference | (iii) Practical heterology |
| (d) Differential perception or impression of a geographical event | (iv) Topophilia |

Codes:

- (A) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
- (B) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
- (C) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
- (D) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)



**76.** According to Masterman (1970), which of the following types of paradigm represents broadest area of consensus and total global view of the discipline?

- (A) Meta paradigm
- (B) Sociological paradigm
- (C) Construct paradigm
- (D) Artefact paradigm



**77.** Find out the incorrect statement from the following:

- (A) Humanistic geography gives central focus to human awareness and agency
- (B) Humanistic geography relies on positivist and/or Marxist methodology
- (C) Humanistic geography is inspired by the philosophy of existentialism
- (D) The concept of Topophilia is associated with humanistic geography



**78.** Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?
(a) Feminist geography primarily studies how gender influences spatial patterns and human interactions with environments
(b) Feminist geography ignores the role of race, class and sexuality in shaping spatial experiences
(c) Studies in feminist geography often use qualitative methods to capture women's lived experience in spaces
(d) Feminist geographers argue that climate change impacts women and men equally in all contexts

Find out the correct option:

- (A) (a) and (b) only
- (B) (c) and (d) only
- (C) (a) and (d) only
- (D) (a) and (c) only



**79.** Assertion (A): Darwinism influenced environmental determinism in geographical thought by suggesting that natural environments shape human societies.
Reason (R): Darwin's Theory of Natural Selection proposed that human societies evolve independently of environmental factors.

Select the correct option:

- (A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
- (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
- (C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false
- (D) (A) is false, but (R) is correct



**80.** Which of the following statements about the concept of 'region' in Geography is correct?

- (A) Formal regions are defined by uniform characteristics
- (B) Functional regions are based on cultural uniformity
- (C) Nodal regions lack a central point
- (D) Perceptual regions are defined by governmental boundaries



## Questions 81–90: Remote Sensing & GIS

**81.** Match the following:

| Satellite/Sensor | Spectral Band |
|---|---|
| (a) Landsat-8 OLI | (i) Near Infrared |
| (b) Sentinel-2 MSI | (ii) Shortwave Infrared |
| (c) MODIS | (iii) Thermal Infrared |
| (d) ASTER | (iv) Visible |

*(Note: Exact text for Q81–88 from this section to be verified with original PDF if figures/diagrams are referenced)



**89.** The spectral range of the 10-bit SWIR band of LISS-3 sensor on Resourcesat-2 satellite is __________ μm

- (A) 1.55 – 1.70
- (B) 1.58 – 1.82
- (C) 1.61 – 1.93
- (D) 1.72 – 1.96



**90.** The SAR-based earth imaging satellite launched in 2020 by India is called

- (A) EOS-01
- (B) RISAT-2
- (C) RISAT-2BR1
- (D) Scat Sat-1



## Questions 91–100: India — Physical & Economic Geography

**91.** Assertion (A): Jet streams influence glacier melting in the Himalayas.
Reason (R): When polar jet stream moves northward, it brings warm air to the region accelerating glacier melt.

Choose the correct option:

- (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
- (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not explain (A)
- (C) (A) is true, (R) is false
- (D) Both (A) and (R) are false



**92.** Desert Development Programme (DDP) in India was started by

- (A) National Wasteland Development Board
- (B) Ministry of Rural Development
- (C) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
- (D) National Commission on Agriculture



**93.** Assertion (A): Globalization has increased income inequality in India.
Reason (R): Urban areas have benefited more from global trade and investment opportunities than rural areas.

Choose the correct option:

- (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
- (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
- (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
- (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true



**94.** Select the most appropriate statement. The Indian Sundarban Region is

- (A) eroding in the southern sea-facing section with little change in the northern interior section.
- (B) accreting in the southern sea-facing section with little change in the northern interior section.
- (C) eroding in the southern sea-facing section and accreting in the northern interior section.
- (D) accreting in both the southern sea-facing and northern interior sections.



**95.** Match the List-I with List-II:

| List-I | List-II |
|---|---|
| (a) Bundelkhand | (i) Shiva |
| (b) Kota Plateau | (ii) Luna |
| (c) Arabian Sea Shelf | (iii) Ramgarh |
| (d) Buldhana | (iv) Dhala |
| | (v) Lonar |

Codes:

- (A) (a)-(iv), (b)-(v), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
- (B) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(v)
- (C) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(v)
- (D) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)



**96.** Arrange the following in chronological order and choose the correct answer from codes given:
(i) Northward movement of Indian plate
(ii) Deccan plateau hotspot volcanism
(iii) Formation of Narmada fault system
(iv) Collision of Indian plate with Eurasian plate

Codes:

- (A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
- (B) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
- (C) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)
- (D) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)



**97.** Which of the following options shows the correct ascending order of the states in terms of population size (as per 2011 census)?

- (A) Gujarat—Andhra Pradesh—West Bengal—Uttar Pradesh
- (B) Punjab—Odisha—Kerala—West Bengal
- (C) Rajasthan—Gujarat—Assam—Karnataka
- (D) West Bengal—Bihar—Maharashtra—Uttar Pradesh



**98.** Which of the following statements is correct?

- (A) India is a large country with very little inter-regional economic inequality
- (B) The natural diversity of India is the result of differential human response to the country's physical environment
- (C) India's cultural diversity is the result of the long-continued nature-culture interaction taking place in different ecological settings of the country
- (D) All the river valleys of India have been experiencing same type of environmental problems irrespective of their location and size



**99.** The Brahmaputra Basin covers parts of the following countries:

- (A) Tibet, India, Bhutan and Bangladesh
- (B) India, China, Myanmar and Bangladesh
- (C) China, India, Bhutan, Bangladesh and Myanmar
- (D) China, India, Bhutan and Bangladesh



**100.** The correct ranking of the states with largest Manganese reserves is

- (A) Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka, Maharashtra
- (B) Odisha, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra
- (C) Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka
- (D) Odisha, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh



*— End of Question Paper —