# WB SET 2022

**Subject Code:** 13 | **Maximum Marks:** 200 | **Time:** 2 Hours



## Instructions for Candidates

1. Write your Roll Number in the space provided on the top of this page as well as on the OMR Sheet provided.
2. At the commencement of the examination, the question booklet will be given to you. In the first 5 (five) minutes, you are requested to open the booklet and verify it.
3. This paper consists of **One Hundred (100)** multiple-choice type questions. All the questions are compulsory. Each question carries **two marks**.
4. Each Question has four alternative responses marked: **(A) (B) (C) (D)**. You have to darken the circle on the correct response against each question.
5. There is **no negative marking** for incorrect answers.



## Section 1: Geomorphology (Q1–Q10)

**1.** Folds, where axial plane is inclined and both limbs of the fold dip in the same direction, are called

- (A) Plunging fold
- (B) Asymmetrical fold
- (C) Overturned fold
- (D) Recumbent fold



**2.** Which among the following is not a hotspot?

- (A) Easter Island
- (B) Tristan da Cunha Island
- (C) Réunion Island
- (D) Cocos Island



**3.** Conservative plate boundaries are located

- (A) along ocean-floor fracture zones
- (B) between two destructive plate boundaries
- (C) between two constructive plate boundaries
- (D) along continental faults like San Andreas



**4.** The Wilson cycle is a model that describes

- (A) the mountain building phases
- (B) the cyclic isostatic adjustments
- (C) the stages of opening and closing of ocean basins
- (D) the stages of formation and destruction of plates



**5.** The following two lists show the factors and geomorphic processes. Match the factors with corresponding processes they control.

**List-I (Factors)*

- (a) Topographic Gradient
- (b) Distance from water divide
- (c) Geomorphic Threshold
- (d) Closed system environment

**List-II (Geomorphic Processes)*

- (i) Toposequence
- (ii) Movement of water and soil
- (iii) Ice crystal growth stress
- (iv) Catastrophic events

Select the correct option:

| | (a) | (b) | (c) | (d) |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | (i) | (ii) | (iii) | (iv) |
| (B) | (iii) | (iv) | (i) | (ii) |
| (C) | (i) | (iii) | (iv) | (ii) |
| (D) | (ii) | (i) | (iv) | (iii) |



**6.** 'Exfoliation dome' is developed mainly due to

- (A) pressure release stress resulting from denudation
- (B) stress out of superincumbent pressure
- (C) thermal gradient stress
- (D) salt-crystal growth stress



**7.** In a river terrace, a continuous stratum of pebbles within layers of sands usually indicates that at the time of its deposition

- (A) landslide occurred from sideslopes
- (B) the river was moving fast
- (C) the river was accelerating
- (D) sudden uplift of the riverbed or floodplain occurred



**8.** Assertion (A): Sinuosity of an alluvial river decreases if slope increases due to tectonic movement.
Reason (R): Channel slope usually increases downstream of an uplifting anticlinal axis.

- (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
- (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
- (C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
- (D) (A) is false but (R) is true.



**9.** Assertion (A): Rate of erosion is less in the old stage of normal cycle of erosion.
Reason (R): Entropy is maximised on the peneplain.

- (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
- (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
- (C) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
- (D) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.



**10.** Which of the following is a product of two phases of erosion?

- (A) Peneplain
- (B) Panplain
- (C) Etch-surface
- (D) Exhumed surface



## Section 2: Climatology & Atmosphere (Q11–Q20)

**11.** Air travel from London to New York involves longer time than return journey because of

- (A) Earth's rotation in anticlockwise direction
- (B) Coriolis force
- (C) SW Westerly wind
- (D) Upper air jet stream



**12.** Isobars at 4 mb interval are drawn for an area starting at 992 mb. Ground distance between these isobars starting from 992 mb are — 35 km, 28 km, 22 km, 18 km, 24 km, 30 km, 38 km. Between which two isobars will pressure gradient be the maximum?

- (A) 1016 – 1020 mb
- (B) 1004 – 1008 mb
- (C) 1012 – 1016 mb
- (D) 1016 – 1020 mb



**13.** Cloudburst is defined by IMD as rainfall of

- (A) ≥ 50 cm / hour
- (B) ≥ 10 cm / hour
- (C) ≥ 5 cm / minute
- (D) ≥ 2 cm / minute



**14.** 'ENSO' is a periodic fluctuation of

- (A) 1 – 6 years
- (B) 2 – 7 years
- (C) 3 – 8 years
- (D) 4 – 9 years



**15.** Dish-pan experiment relates to the formation of

- (A) Polar vortex
- (B) ENSO
- (C) Rossby waves
- (D) Easterly jet streams



**16.** Following lists show some climatic phenomena and associated features. Find the correct match.

**List-I (Climatic phenomena)*

- (a) ENSO Events
- (b) Thunderstorm
- (c) Frontal instability
- (d) Atmospheric stability

**List-II (Associated Features)*

- (i) Equatorial region
- (ii) Baroclinic condition
- (iii) Walker cell
- (iv) Barotropic condition

| | (a) | (b) | (c) | (d) |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | (i) | (ii) | (iv) | (iii) |
| (B) | (iv) | (iii) | (i) | (ii) |
| (C) | (iii) | (i) | (ii) | (iv) |
| (D) | (ii) | (iii) | (iv) | (i) |



**17.** Assertion (A): Eye of a cyclone has low pressure in spite of descending wind.
Reason (R): Descending wind is warmed up by adiabatic warming.

- (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
- (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
- (C) (A) is correct but (R) is false.
- (D) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.



**18.** Indian Ocean Dipole refers to (i) ________ surface temperature anomaly and affects (ii) ________ of countries that surround Indian Ocean Basin.
*(a) Sea, (b) Land, (c) Canopy, (d) Ice cover, (e) Rainfall, (f) Vegetation

- (A) (i) — (b), (ii) — (e)
- (B) (i) — (c), (ii) — (f)
- (C) (i) — (a), (ii) — (d)
- (D) (i) — (a), (ii) — (e)



**19.** Which of the following is not considered as evidence in establishing climate change?

- (A) Ancient ice cores
- (B) Tree ring dating
- (C) Lacustrine varves
- (D) Radioactive isotope dating



**20.** Rainfall distribution at global-scale in the recent decades is altered due to

- (A) alteration of Hadley cell of general wind circulation
- (B) alteration of Ferrel's cell of general wind circulation
- (C) alteration of Polar cell of general wind circulation
- (D) alteration of entire global circulation patterns



## Section 3: Oceanography (Q21–Q30)

**21.** Relief difference between two sides of fracture zones of ocean floors is best explained by

- (A) Pratt's theory of isostasy.
- (B) Airy's theory of isostasy.
- (C) Transform faults.
- (D) Mantle inhomogeneity below the oceanic crust.



**22.** Some of European coasts record sea-level fall. It is because of

- (A) upliftment of coastal landmass due to isostatic rebound resulting from deglaciation
- (B) tectonic subsidence of sea floor
- (C) expansion of ocean basin
- (D) upliftment of coastal land along convergent plate margin



**23.** In oceans, CaCO₃ compensation depth relates to

- (A) Death rate of marine macro-fauna
- (B) Amount of carbonic acid present in sea water
- (C) 'T – S' gradient of water masses
- (D) Water depth of > 2,000 m



**24.** Assertion (A): Two samples of ocean water can have the same density at different combinations of temperature and salinity.
Reason (R): Temperature and salinity of ocean water varies with depth.

- (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
- (B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
- (C) (A) is correct but (R) is false.
- (D) (A) is false but (R) is correct.



**25.** Thermohaline circulation of ocean water is driven by which of the following factors?

1. Heat
2. Wind
3. Rainwater
4. Density

- (A) (1) and (3)
- (B) (1) and (4)
- (C) (2) and (3)
- (D) (3) and (4)



**26.** The positions inside the ocean, which experience no fluctuation of water level due to tide, are known as

- (A) Amphidromic points
- (B) Co-tidal points
- (C) Diurnal tidal locations
- (D) Semi-diurnal tidal locations



**27.** In an estuary, tidal wavelength is primarily determined by the estuary's

- (A) Length
- (B) Average width
- (C) Average depth
- (D) Shape



**28.** Which of the following changes are observed as a wave approaches a coast?

- (A) Both wave-length and wave-period reduce.
- (B) Both wave-velocity and wave-height increase.
- (C) Wave-velocity reduces and wave-height increases.
- (D) Wave-length increases and wave-height reduces.



**29.** Which of the following two statements are true for a tsunami?

1. It involves movement of water from surface to sea-floor.
2. Shoaling effect can greatly increase wave-heights closer to coast.
3. In the open ocean tsunami waves reach greater heights.
4. Speed of tsunami is controlled by wind velocity.

- (A) (1) and (3)
- (B) (2) and (4)
- (C) (1) and (2)
- (D) (3) and (4)



**30.** Rip-cell circulations along the coasts are developed

- (A) dominantly by long-shore current
- (B) dominantly by shore-normal current
- (C) by the combination of shore-normal and long-shore currents
- (D) by the incident wave propagation



## Section 4: Biogeography & Environment (Q31–Q40)

**31.** The ratio between the energy flow at different trophic levels along the food chain, when expressed as percentage is called

- (A) Ecological index
- (B) Relative ratio of energy flow
- (C) Energy flow efficiency
- (D) Ecological efficiency



**32.** Which type of structure and function of living system is maintained by its chemical, physical and organic activities?

- (A) Heterostatic
- (B) Homeostatic
- (C) Ecostatic
- (D) Biostatic



**33.** Plants growing in marshes are called

- (A) Halophytes
- (B) Helophytes
- (C) Heliophytes
- (D) Hemophytes



**34.** Sustenance of ecosystem with abundance of marine life in apparently nutrient-free and clear water of the coral reefs is known as

- (A) Zooxanthellae Effect
- (B) Coral Flourish
- (C) Darwin's Paradox
- (D) Cousteau's Principle



**35.** Consider the following statements regarding flow of matter and choose the correct option:

1. Nutrient cycles closely parallel the routes of energy flow within the biotic components.
2. The movement of materials is cyclic.
3. The Nutrient cycle is conservative.

- (A) Only (1) is correct.
- (B) Only (2) is correct.
- (C) (2) and (3) are correct.
- (D) (1), (2) and (3) are correct.



**36.** Principles of managing water and air pollution rest on

- (A) Concentration and Separation
- (B) Dilution and Separation
- (C) Dilution and Concentration
- (D) Dilution, Washing and Distribution



**37.** Following lists show the techniques and types of waste-water treatment. Choose the correct match.

**List-I (Types of Treatment)*

- (a) Primary treatment
- (b) Secondary treatment
- (c) Tertiary treatment

**List-II (Technique)*

- (i) Comminutor
- (ii) Activated sludge
- (iii) Disinfection

| | (a) | (b) | (c) |
|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | (ii) | (iii) | (i) |
| (B) | (i) | (ii) | (iii) |
| (C) | (iii) | (ii) | (i) |
| (D) | (i) | (iii) | (ii) |



**38.** Presence of Arsenic traces in human body is an example of

- (A) Bio-filtration
- (B) Bio-precipitation
- (C) Bio-remediation
- (D) Bio-accumulation



**39.** Which of the following is not an enacted act for legal and regulatory framework in India?

- (A) Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972
- (B) Biological Diversity Act, 2002
- (C) Forest (Clearance) Act, 1980
- (D) National Green Tribunal Act, 2010



**40.** In COP-26, India has pledged to achieve Net Zero by

- (A) 2040
- (B) 2050
- (C) 2060
- (D) 2070



## Section 5: Population & Settlement Geography (Q41–Q50)

**41.** Assertion (A): World population growth rate was extremely slow in the pre-historic period.
Reason (R): It took over two million years of human pre-history and history for the human population to reach one billion.

- (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
- (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
- (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
- (D) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.



**42.** Identify the incorrect one from the following statements regarding Demographic Transition:

- (A) Both birth and death rates are balanced in high stationary and low stationary stages.
- (B) In the early expansion stage, the birth and death rates tend to converge as birth rates fall relative to death rates.
- (C) Low population growth characterises both high stationary and low stationary stage.
- (D) The gap between birth and death rates narrows down in the late expanding stage.



**43.** Which of the following statements are correct?

- (a) Population census was carried out by the Roman empire to count men of military age and for tax collection.
- (b) Census carried out at an individual's current address is called 'de-jure' method of census data collection.
- (c) Census carried out at person's permanent address is called 'de-facto' method of census.
- (d) First ever population census in India was held in the year 1872.
- (A) (a) and (b)
- (B) (b) and (c)
- (C) (c) and (d)
- (D) (a) and (d)



**44.** In which of the following indices does the average number of daughters replace a given cohort of women (their mothers)?

- (A) Net Reproduction Rate
- (B) Net Fertility Rate
- (C) Gross Reproduction Rate
- (D) Total Fertility Rate



**45.** Rural wage equals rural marginal product of labour while urban wage is exogenously determined — This is a key proposition made by

- (A) Ernst George Ravenstein
- (B) Everett Lee
- (C) Arthur Lewis
- (D) J. R. Harris and M. Todaro



**46.** Which of the following statements made on the meaning of rural-urban fringe is correct?

- (A) A zone of transition between the continuously built-up urban and sub-urban areas of a city and its rural hinterland.
- (B) A narrow sub-urban zone between a city and the rural areas it serves.
- (C) A concentric area between the city and its suburbs.
- (D) A part of the rural-urban continuum where certain elements of urban structure are found to occur.



**47.** Match the following and choose the correct answer from the codes given below.

**List-I (Pattern of Settlement)*

- (a) Star-shaped
- (b) Nucleated
- (c) Linear
- (d) Dispersed

**List-II (Associated Factor)*

- (i) Intensive cropping
- (ii) Convergence of a number of roads
- (iii) Hilly topography
- (iv) Road, River, Canal etc.

| | (a) | (b) | (c) | (d) |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | (ii) | (i) | (iv) | (iii) |
| (B) | (i) | (ii) | (iii) | (iv) |
| (C) | (iv) | (ii) | (i) | (iii) |
| (D) | (iii) | (i) | (iv) | (ii) |



**48.** Read the following statements and choose the correct answer:

1. Land use change is a process by which the character of land is modified by human activities.
2. Land use change may affect the ecological balance of the concerned area.
3. Land use change may even lead to atmospheric temperature change.

- (A) Only 3 is correct
- (B) 1 and 3 are correct
- (C) Only 1 is correct
- (D) All the three (1–3) are correct



**49.** Which of the following are the main characteristics of a 'Global City'?

1. Major international airport
2. Active influence on and participation in international events
3. Trans-territorial in character
4. A minimum population working in the IT sector

- (A) 1 and 3
- (B) 2 and 4
- (C) 1, 2 and 3
- (D) 1 and 4



**50.** Assertion (A): Land use changes in rural-urban fringe are most prominent.
Reason (R): Land acquisition is very easy in the rural-urban fringe.

- (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
- (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not always the correct explanation of (A).
- (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
- (D) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.



## Section 6: Economic Geography & Regional Development (Q51–Q60)

**51.** The following are statements about the world's energy crisis during 1970's:

1. The OPEC raised the price of oil from $1.5 to $7 per barrel in 1973.
2. The price shot-up to $24 by 1979.
3. India experienced complete disruption of imports, but no inflation.
4. The Iranian Revolution in 1979 added to the disruption of oil supplies.

Select the correct answer:

- (A) 1, 2 and 4
- (B) 2, 3 and 4
- (C) 1 and 4
- (D) 1, 2 and 3



**52.** The quaternary sector of the economy is NOT characterised by

- (A) improvements of manufacturing processes by the entrepreneurs
- (B) encouraging constant innovations in technology
- (C) expansion of the knowledge economy
- (D) expansion of 'blue-collar' job opportunities



**53.** Which one of the following statements concerning Von Thunen's model is correct?

- (A) The agricultural location model propounded by Von Thunen was developed around the concept of rent.
- (B) Von Thunen's model was based only on transport cost of the products from the source to the market.
- (C) Spatial variation in the level of soil fertility was the main concern of the Von Thunen's model.
- (D) On the basis of distance from the market, Von Thunen recognised eight concentric zones of agricultural land use.



**54.** Which of the following relations for measuring Crop Diversification (CD) was devised by Bhatia?

- (A) CD = 1 − Σx² / (Σx)²
- (B) CD = Total cropped area under 'x' crops / Number of 'x' crops
- (C) CD = Percentage of total harvested area under 'n' crops / Number of 'n' crops
- (D) CD = Gross cropped area / Number of crops cultivated



**55.** Which of the following features of globalisation have an adverse effect upon less-developed countries?

- (A) Mobility of capital
- (B) Greater mobility of labour
- (C) Free trade agreements
- (D) Re-cycling or re-using to reduce environmental impacts



**56.** The Four Asian Tigers experiencing rapid economic growth since the 1960's as industrial regions are

- (A) Singapore, Hong Kong, South Korea, Taiwan
- (B) China, Hong Kong, Taiwan, Singapore
- (C) China, Singapore, Hong Kong, Japan
- (D) Singapore, Hong Kong, North Korea, Taiwan



**57.** The Gravity Model is used for travel demand forecasting and does NOT imply —

- (A) Trips produced at an origin are directly proportional to the total trip production at the origin.
- (B) As travel time increases, travellers are increasingly less likely to make those trips.
- (C) The 'friction factor' represents reluctance of persons to make certain trips.
- (D) It is assumed that there is no balance between productions and attractions.



**58.** Following are some characteristics of regional economic integration. Select the correct option:

1. It has reduced income gaps between countries through convergence.
2. It has increased inequality within countries.
3. Different forms of connectivity favoured all countries equally.
4. Small, isolated and vulnerable regions are in adverse position in it.

- (A) 1, 2 and 4
- (B) 2 and 4
- (C) 1 and 3
- (D) 1, 3 and 4



**59.** The Gangetic Plain as an agro-climatic region is divided into the following subregions:

1. Upper and Lower Gangetic Basin
2. Lower, Middle, Upper and Trans-Gangetic Plain
3. Lower, Upper and Trans-Gangetic Plain
4. Upper and Trans-Gangetic plain

Select the correct answer:

- (A) 1, 2 and 3
- (B) only 2
- (C) only 3
- (D) 2 and 4



**60.** Dependency theories seek to explain the distorted character of development in

- (A) Advanced economies
- (B) Colonised regions
- (C) Backward regions
- (D) Regions with a high dependency ratio



## Section 7: Cultural & Political Geography (Q61–Q70)

**61.** Assertion (A): Cultural traits are genetically transmitted from one person to another.
Reason (R): Culture is accumulated and transferred from one generation to another through language.

- (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
- (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
- (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
- (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.



**62.** Development of a new form of cultural trait by the fusion of two or more distinct parental elements results in

- (A) Acculturation
- (B) Assimilation
- (C) Syncretism
- (D) Integration



**63.** According to the Ministry of Tourism, India, majority of the tourist arrivals for medical purposes are from

- (A) Bangladesh and Nepal
- (B) Bangladesh and Afghanistan
- (C) Pakistan and Sri Lanka
- (D) Pakistan and Myanmar



**64.** Cultural ecology refers to

- (A) the study of human adaptation to the social and physical environments
- (B) the interpretation of human adaptation to social and economic environments
- (C) the study of human response to the physical and economic environments
- (D) the analysis of human modification of the earth's landscapes



**65.** According to Census of India, 2011, in which of the following religious categories, the proportion of scheduled caste population is the highest?

- (A) Buddhism
- (B) Sikhism
- (C) Hinduism
- (D) Christianity



**66.** Assertion (A): Majority of the tribal population in India is concentrated in areas not having intensive cultivation.
Reason (R): Shifting cultivation is practised by the tribal population.

- (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
- (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
- (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
- (D) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.



**67.** Which of the following statements are true?

- (a) Scheduled tribe population is negligible in their presence in Ganga valley.
- (b) Religious minorities have greater representation in the population located in the geographical periphery of India.
- (c) All the tribal communities in North-East India speak one or other languages belonging to Sino-Tibetan family.
- (d) Kerala has the highest concentration of scheduled castes in its population.
- (A) (a) and (b) are correct
- (B) (b) and (c) are correct
- (C) (c) and (d) are correct
- (D) only (a) is correct



**68.** A zone of varying width separating states in which neither state exercises political control is a

- (A) Boundary
- (B) Buffer
- (C) Frontier
- (D) Line of Actual Control



**69.** ___________ boundaries result when a smaller state is absorbed by a larger one or when former boundaries between states are abandoned and redrawn.

- (A) Superimposed
- (B) Subsequent
- (C) Antecedent
- (D) Relict



**70.** The Montreal Protocol was primarily established to

- (A) Protect bio-diversity
- (B) Protect ozone layer
- (C) Protect wetlands
- (D) Facilitate carbon trade



## Section 8: Geographical Thought & Philosophy (Q71–Q80)

**71.** Read the following statements and find out which of these are correct:

- (a) Herodotus declared earth as a flat disc.
- (b) Main contribution in the field of historical and mathematical geography came from the Romans.
- (c) Eratosthenes was the first to calculate the tilt of the earth's axis.
- (d) Ptolemy accurately assumed the circumference of the earth which helped sailors reaching Asia by sailing West from Europe.
- (A) (a) and (c) are correct
- (B) (b) and (d) are correct
- (C) (c) and (d) are correct
- (D) Only (a) is correct



**72.** Name the Arab geographer who used trigonometry to calculate the Earth's radius by measuring the height of a hill.

- (A) Al Biruni
- (B) Al Idrisi
- (C) Al Masudi
- (D) Ibn Batuta



**73.** The organisation that was set up in 1956 for publishing thematic maps of India was called

- (A) Thematic Mapping Association of India
- (B) National Atlas Organisation
- (C) National Thematic Mapping Organisation
- (D) National Atlas and Thematic Mapping Organisation



**74.** Match the following:

**List-I (Author)*

- (a) Immanuel Kant
- (b) Richard Hartshorne
- (c) Richard Kuhn
- (d) Yi-Fu Tuan

**List-II (Book)*

- (i) Nature of Geography
- (ii) Physische Geographie
- (iii) Topophilia: A study of Environmental Perception, Attitude and Values
- (iv) The Structure of Scientific Revolution

| | (a) | (b) | (c) | (d) |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | ii | i | iv | iii |
| (B) | iii | i | iv | ii |
| (C) | iv | ii | iii | i |
| (D) | i | iv | ii | iii |



**75.** Who amongst the following is NOT a feminist geographer?

- (A) Marjorie Sweeting
- (B) Doreen Massey
- (C) Susan Manson
- (D) Gillian Rose



**76.** Which of the following geographic traditions concentrates on the study of phenomena from the perspectives of geometric elements like — point, line and area?

- (A) Area-study tradition
- (B) Earth-science tradition
- (C) Spatial analysis tradition
- (D) Man-land tradition



**77.** The following two lists state the concepts in geography and one of the most important contributors to the development of that concept. Match the two lists:

**List-I (Concept)*

- (a) Humanistic Geography
- (b) Social space
- (c) Post-Modernism
- (d) Radicalism in Geography

**List-II (Contributor)*

- (i) Michael Foucault
- (ii) Chombart de Lauwe
- (iii) Richard Peet
- (iv) Yi-fu Tuan

| | (a) | (b) | (c) | (d) |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | (ii) | (iii) | (i) | (iv) |
| (B) | (iii) | (ii) | (iv) | (i) |
| (C) | (ii) | (i) | (iii) | (iv) |
| (D) | (iv) | (ii) | (i) | (iii) |



**78.** Which of the following represents a model constructed through inductive approach on the basis of observed regularities?

- (A) Priori Model
- (B) Posteriori Model
- (C) Normative Model
- (D) Predictive Model



**79.** Spatiality, volatility and pluralism are the basic tenets of

- (A) Post structuralism
- (B) Post modernism
- (C) Structuralism
- (D) Modernism



**80.** Following lists show the philosophies and associated guiding principles. Match them:

**List-I (Philosophies)*

- (a) Postmodernism
- (b) Modernism
- (c) Structuralism
- (d) Post-structuralism

**List-II (Principles)*

- (i) Code of production
- (ii) Simultaneity
- (iii) Sequential analysis
- (iv) Mode of production

| | (a) | (b) | (c) | (d) |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | (i) | (ii) | (iii) | (iv) |
| (B) | (ii) | (iii) | (iv) | (i) |
| (C) | (iii) | (iv) | (i) | (ii) |
| (D) | (iii) | (i) | (ii) | (iv) |



## Section 9: Remote Sensing, GIS & Statistics (Q81–Q90)

**81.** Which of the following is NOT a derivative of analysis using DEM?

- (A) Zonal Statistics
- (B) Watershed delineation
- (C) Topographic Position Index
- (D) Slope



**82.** Which statistical procedure uses an orthogonal transformation that converts a set of correlated variables to a set of uncorrelated variables?

- (A) Gaussian transformation
- (B) Moran's I
- (C) Fast Fourier Transformation
- (D) Principal Component Analysis



**83.** Flow map is NOT suitable for representing which of the following data?

- (A) Number of vehicles per hour.
- (B) Volume of oil transported through pipeline per day.
- (C) Number of persons gathering in market per week.
- (D) Volume of water discharged through river segments per annum.



**84.** Assertion (A): ANOVA is preferred over 't' test where comparison between two or more population means are involved.
Reason (R): Probability of committing Type I error accumulates when numbers of comparisons in 't' test increases.

- (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
- (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
- (C) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct.
- (D) (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct.



**85.** Among the following values of hypsometric integral, which one denotes minimum erosion of a drainage basin area?

- (A) 0.02
- (B) 0.48
- (C) 0.51
- (D) 0.92



**86.** The Semi-interquartile range is preferred to the standard deviation as a measure of dispersion, when

- (A) the distribution is standardised
- (B) the range is small
- (C) the sample size is small
- (D) the distribution is highly skewed



**87.** One nautical mile measures the arc-length distance along the great-circle against which of the following angular distances at the centre of earth?

- (A) 1"
- (B) 1'
- (C) 3'
- (D) 3"



**88.** In a standard FCC of winter season, laterite duricrusts are represented in

- (A) Yellow
- (B) Green
- (C) Grey
- (D) Brown



**89.** In which of the spatial operators will the output layer have more area than the individual input layers?

- (A) Intersection
- (B) Union
- (C) Identity
- (D) Clip



**90.** Which one of the following is a widely used and effective machine learning algorithm based on the idea of bagging?

- (A) Regression
- (B) Classification
- (C) Decision tree
- (D) Random forest



## Section 10: India — Physical & Economic Geography (Q91–Q100)

**91.** The largest producer of chromite in India is

- (A) Karnataka
- (B) Odisha
- (C) Chattisgarh
- (D) Madhya Pradesh



**92.** Mawsynram of Meghalaya, the wettest place of India, typically gets average annual rainfall of

- (A) 400–600 cm
- (B) 600–800 cm
- (C) 800–1,000 cm
- (D) > 1,000 cm



**93.** Match the river basins with percent of India's land area drained by them:

**River basins*

- (a) Kaveri
- (b) Pennar
- (c) Subarnarekha
- (d) Tapi

**Percent of India's land area drained*

- (i) 0.9
- (ii) 1.7
- (iii) 2.0
- (iv) 2.5
- (v) 4.1

| | (a) | (b) | (c) | (d) |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | (iv) | (iii) | (i) | (ii) |
| (B) | (iv) | (ii) | (i) | (iii) |
| (C) | (v) | (i) | (ii) | (iii) |
| (D) | (ii) | (i) | (iv) | (iii) |



**94.** Which of the following statements about Jharkhand is correct?

- (A) It has the largest share of coal production in India.
- (B) It has the largest share of iron ore production in India.
- (C) It is the leading producer of mica in India.
- (D) It has the largest share of bauxite production in India.



**95.** Which of the following biosphere reserves in India is a part of UNESCO's world network of biosphere reserves?

- (A) Simlipal
- (B) Achanakmar-Amarkantak
- (C) Seshachalam
- (D) Panna



**96.** Which one of the following is not included in the 'North-Eastern Region' of India as defined by the Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region (DoNER)?

- (A) Sikkim
- (B) West Bengal
- (C) Assam
- (D) Manipur



**97.** Which of the following is the correct rank order (highest to lowest) of Indian states in terms of area?

- (A) Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh
- (B) Rajasthan, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh
- (C) Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh
- (D) Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra



**98.** Assertion (A): The winter rainfall in Tamil Nadu coast is mostly caused by the North-East Monsoon.
Reason (R): Tamil Nadu coast lies on the leeward side of the South-West Monsoon.

- (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
- (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
- (C) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
- (D) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.



**99.** Consider the following statements about the National Waterways (NW) of India:

1. NW-1 covers Allahabad–Haldia stretch of the Ganga-Bhagirathi-Hooghly river.
2. NW-2 covers Sadiya–Dhubri stretch of the Brahmaputra river.
3. NW-3 covers Kollam–Kottapuram stretch in Kerala.
4. NW-4 covers Kakinada–Puducherry stretch of canals and the Krishna and Godavari rivers.

Which of the above statements are correct?

- (A) 1 and 2
- (B) 1, 2 and 3
- (C) 2, 3 and 4
- (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4



**100.** The Palghat Gap in the Western Ghats connects

- (A) Kerala and Tamil Nadu
- (B) Goa and Karnataka
- (C) Karnataka and Tamil Nadu
- (D) Kerala and Karnataka



*— End of Question Paper —